I never admitted that sin was without the law. You pinned that on me.
Fresh from the Memory Hole, with bold applied to make your admission easier to spot:
Next verse. 9 What then? are we better than they? No, in no wise: for we have before proved both Jews and Gentiles, that they are all under sin;
What is sin? 1 John 3
4 Whosoever committeth sin transgresseth also the law: for sin is the transgression of the law.It is clear that both the Jews that had the law and the Gentles that had not the law are in the same boat. Same condemnation.
Notice that you correctly show that sin is present in both those who had the Law and those who didn't...
So is it really that the law did not apply to no one but the Jews?
...
and then question the limited jurisdiction of the Law you just admitted it has!
You admitted that the Gentiles are sinners, and they don't have the Law. And, that is consistent with the Biblical record and Paul's many summaries regarding its limited jurisdiction. You've seen these plenty of times that denial becomes moot.
My attempt was to show you that there was sin before Sinai and that sin being a transgression of the law...
Sin existed before the covenant from Mount Sinai - another admission from you that is consistent with the Biblical record. You have seen Paul's comments regarding this record:
Romans 4
14 For if those who are of the law are heirs, faith is made void and the promise made of no effect, 15 because the law brings about wrath; for where there is no law there is no transgression.
Paul differentiates between sin and transgressions, and maybe you jumped ahead and were thinking of Romans 5:13 where it says "For until the law sin was in the world, but sin is not imputed when there is no law".
You have also seen 1 John 5:17 specify that "
All unrighteousness is sin", so your attempt to limit sin as reliant on the Law's existence is contrary to John's own definition. Where he writes sin is lawlessness (rendered 'transgression' in your translation, already shown to be inaccurate in your 'Why not Jesus' thread), the operative verbs are all in the present tense. They are not perfect tense, meaning that they can't be applied to a time before the Law existed. I have no trouble accepting what John wrote, whereas your blinders allow you to see one verse and not what John wrote two chapters later. Not only so, but you're defiant of what Paul wrote summarizing the Law's jurisdiction as well as what Moses wrote.
...must mean that the law was in existence before it was written down.
This is the most abhorrent contradiction to what the Biblical authors wrote that it is a total fairy tale. Is this what your church actually teaching, to ignore all of Scripture to fabricate a lie based on one verse while ignoring the verbal tense staring you in the face?
How many times have I asked you to show me where the Gentiles in Barbados were ever given the Ten Commandments or the sabbath commandment contained in it? And by your silence you have admitted that Barbados is a Gentile nation that was estranged from God's grace during the tenure of the Law, as Ephesians 2:11-16 describes the Gentiles' condition before the Gospel.
You've contradicted Scripture, and you've contradicted yourself.
Your argument is that it was not written so it was not. That would mean that Cain sinned but he did not commit murder? Just because you do not see it written down before? Tell me what was Cain guilty of?
God rejected Cain's offering because it was not a blood offering like Abel's. Why? Was God not unfair, there was nothing written down about offering a lamb.
Why did not Joseph sleep with the woman? There nothing written down about adultery.
Why did God destroy Sodom? There was nothing written down about men with men.
Why did God case out the Canaanites? There was nothing written down about idolatry.
I will not believe in nonsense! You want me to believe that Abraham was guilty of adultery with Hagar but that there was no law that said thou shall not commit adultery? Why did the king of Egypt give back Sarah when he realized that she was Abraham's wife?
Because you refuse to differentiate sin apart from transgression, you're openly claiming that none of these acts were sin after seeing that there was no Divine law the perpetrators could have transgressed.
Your post is nonsense.
Sin existed before the Law; that is the Biblical record, and that is what you're contradicting.