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What does Jesus not stoning the Adulteress really mean?

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GratiaCorpusChristi

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I'm well aware of the controversy surrounding the passage, and the history of it. Gratia said that it isn't part of the Bible, so who cares. To me that sounded like he was saying it's not inspired text, which is false.

It's not an inspired text. It's not part of the original text of any New Testament book. It's not in the earliest manuscripts, and it shows up in different places when it does (appendix to John, somewhere in Luke, etc.).

That doesn't mean it's not theologically important. John Chrysostom's Easter Sermon isn't inspired either, but that doesn't mean it isn't theologically or historically significant. But it's not part of the original New Testament, and text critical scholars are agreed on this.
 
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MJohn7

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It's not an inspired text. It's not part of the original text of any New Testament book. It's not in the earliest manuscripts, and it shows up in different places when it does (appendix to John, somewhere in Luke, etc.).

That doesn't mean it's not theologically important. John Chrysostom's Easter Sermon isn't inspired either, but that doesn't mean it isn't theologically or historically significant. But it's not part of the original New Testament, and text critical scholars are agreed on this.


I have a hard time accepting that someone added that story to the bible by inspiration, and i dont trust a manuscript just because its said to be older. no one has the original manuscript and so i think we must compare scripture and walk in faith.

Besides, to me the gospel is suppose to be about grace, peace, and following wise instruction. But thats my way, i grow weary in this world over division and debate. Praise the Lord, this world is not my home.
 
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dogs4thewin

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dogs4thewin

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I got part of the way through a Christian Ministry degree and in my Gospel of John class (actually a core class at that particular school) we did a project on it.
 
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dogs4thewin

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Sword of the Lord

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Well, there's speculation about that, too, and the ending to Mark, and (one of) the most important verse on the Trinity in 1 John 5, and whether or not Paul *really* wrote half the Epistles that bear his name, or whether they're counterfeit, and who *really* wrote John (Lazarus, maybe? Ohhhh....), and whether the author of John and Revelation are *really* the same, as the writing styles differ, and and and....

People have been trying to pick apart the scriptures for as long as we've had them.
 
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dogs4thewin

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Well, there's speculation about that, too, and the ending to Mark, and (one of) the most important verse on the Trinity in 1 John 5, and whether or not Paul *really* wrote half the Epistles that bear his name, or whether they're counterfeit, and who *really* wrote John (Lazarus, maybe? Ohhhh....), and whether the author of John and Revelation are *really* the same, as the writing styles differ, and and and....

People have been trying to pick apart the scriptures for as long as we've had them.
Well, some things will always be debated and some things that will always be debated do not REALLY matter, in the big picture.
 
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GratiaCorpusChristi

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Well, there's speculation about that, too, and the ending to Mark, and (one of) the most important verse on the Trinity in 1 John 5, and whether or not Paul *really* wrote half the Epistles that bear his name, or whether they're counterfeit, and who *really* wrote John (Lazarus, maybe? Ohhhh....), and whether the author of John and Revelation are *really* the same, as the writing styles differ, and and and....

People have been trying to pick apart the scriptures for as long as we've had them.

Again, you're confusing higher criticism and textual criticism. Textual criticism- which deals with issues like John 8, 1 John 5, and the ending of Mark- actually deals with manuscript evidence we actually possess. The question of Pauline and Johannine authorship is a completely different discipline. Are you ignorant of that fact, or are you simply being disingenuous?
 
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Yarddog

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Is there a deeper theological context with regard to the mosaic law, for example, with this act, Jesus was mandated to kill her. Was the Mosaic law nullified, and under what law was it nullified?

Deut 22:22

"If a man is found sleeping with another man’s wife, both the man who slept with her and the woman must die. You must purge the evil from Israel."
Mercy.

The woman sinned and the sentence could have been carried out but Jesus showed that we should always temper judgment with mercy. All of us are guilty yet God has shown mercy upon us and we should share that with others worthy of death.
 
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GreatistheLord

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Setyoufree said:
Let's examine this:

Gal 4:4 "But when the time had fully come, God sent his Son, born of a woman, born under law, 5 to redeem those under law...."

Christ came and joined Himself to our humanity and in so doing He, as the Son of Man, was born under law in order that He could legally redeem those under law.

So Christ came to save the human race from under law, but not by doing away with the law. Instead He took upon His sinless Deity our fallen human life. On the cross Christ came under the curse of the law. That wouldn't be possible if the law were "revoked".

Now turn to Gal 3:13 "Christ redeemed us from the curse of the law by (doing away with the law)?:confused:

No, that's not what the Bible teaches.

"Christ redeemed us from the curse of the law by becoming a curse for us".

If you do away with the law then Christ's death for sinners becomes meaningless.

If Christ did away with the law then sinful mankind does not need to be redeemed from under its curse.

Clearly Christ came to deliver us from under law, but He didn't do this by "revoking" the law.

If you still don't buy what I am saying turn to Matthew 5:17

"Do not think that I have come to abolish the Law or the Prophets; I have not come to abolish them but to fulfill them. 18 I tell you the truth, until heaven and earth disappear, not the smallest letter, not the least stroke of a pen, will by any means disappear from the Law until everything is accomplished."

Has the world we live in come to an end? No! Therefore the law of God is alive and well.

Does that mean the believer is under the law's jurisdiction.

No!

Why? To be under law is death for all of us are a bunch of sinners, even though we are growing in grace.

Therefore, to legally redeem us from under law, Christ had to assume your life 2000 yrs ago. He did this by assuming the life we all share (Adam's life) and when the Son of Man died, you too died in Him.

Don't believe me?

Rom 6:6 ...."our old self (our old life from Adam) was crucified with him so that the body of sin might be done away with...."

Rom 7:4 "you (your life from Adam) also died to the law (the law demanded your death) through the body of Christ..."

So the law has not been abolished. Instead the law has been legally satisfied or fulfilled. Since your old life died the curse, the law has been satisfied and it no longer recognizes you as living.

Since you died with Christ the law no recognizes you as living. The law has no jurisdiction over the dead, just the living. A Christian has died to the law in Christ and therefore the law can't touch him.

Romans 7:6 " ...by dying to what once bound us (the law), we have been released from the law so that we serve in the new way of the Spirit, and not in the old way of the written code (i.e., obey & live, disobey & die)."

Ok, Im with you most of the way here, except how did Jesus not be condemned by the law by setting her free?

How could he do that and remain blameless - under the law?
 
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xTx

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Let's examine this:

Gal 4:4 "But when the time had fully come, God sent his Son, born of a woman, born under law, 5 to redeem those under law...."


Christ came and joined Himself to our humanity and in so doing He, as the Son of Man, was born under law in order that He could legally redeem those under law.

So Christ came to save the human race from under law, but not by doing away with the law. Instead He took upon His sinless Deity our fallen human life. On the cross Christ came under the curse of the law. That wouldn't be possible if the law were "revoked".

Now turn to Gal 3:13 "Christ redeemed us from the curse of the law by (doing away with the law)?:confused:

No, that's not what the Bible teaches.

"Christ redeemed us from the curse of the law by becoming a curse for us".

If you do away with the law then Christ's death for sinners becomes meaningless.

If Christ did away with the law then sinful mankind does not need to be redeemed from under its curse.

Clearly Christ came to deliver us from under law, but He didn't do this by "revoking" the law.

If you still don't buy what I am saying turn to Matthew 5:17

"Do not think that I have come to abolish the Law or the Prophets; I have not come to abolish them but to fulfill them. 18 I tell you the truth, until heaven and earth disappear, not the smallest letter, not the least stroke of a pen, will by any means disappear from the Law until everything is accomplished."

Has the world we live in come to an end? No! Therefore the law of God is alive and well.

Does that mean the believer is under the law's jurisdiction.

No!

Why? To be under law is death for all of us are a bunch of sinners, even though we are growing in grace.

Therefore, to legally redeem us from under law, Christ had to assume your life 2000 yrs ago. He did this by assuming the life we all share (Adam's life) and when the Son of Man died, you too died in Him.

Don't believe me?

Rom 6:6 ...."our old self (our old life from Adam) was crucified with him so that the body of sin might be done away with...."

Rom 7:4 "you (your life from Adam) also died to the law (the law demanded your death) through the body of Christ..."

So the law has not been abolished. Instead the law has been legally satisfied or fulfilled. Since your old life died the curse, the law has been satisfied and it no longer recognizes you as living.

Since you died with Christ the law no recognizes you as living. The law has no jurisdiction over the dead, just the living. A Christian has died to the law in Christ and therefore the law can't touch him.

Romans 7:6 " ...by dying to what once bound us (the law), we have been released from the law so that we serve in the new way of the Spirit, and not in the old way of the written code (i.e., obey & live, disobey & die)."

Thank you for your kindness, patience & your time Setyoufree.

This explains to me why Jesus had to die on the cross.

There are so many layers to Christianity.

It is all good.
 
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