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What does Jesus not stoning the Adulteress really mean?

GreatistheLord

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Is there a deeper theological context with regard to the mosaic law, for example, with this act, Jesus was mandated to kill her. Was the Mosaic law nullified, and under what law was it nullified?

Deut 22:22

"If a man is found sleeping with another man’s wife, both the man who slept with her and the woman must die. You must purge the evil from Israel."
 

Sword of the Lord

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The Orthodox Study Bible

John 8:5, 6 Notes:

The Law dictated the death penalty for adulterers (Lv 20:10). This ordinance was not observed to the letter in the days of Jesus; the Pharisees brought this particular woman because they saw an opportunity to test Him. If Christ objected to the punishment, He could be accused of opposing the Law; if he upheld the punishment, then he could be accused of showing no mercy to sinners.

John 8:7-11 Notes:

Christ's answer confounds the Pharisees, for He upholds a great principle of the Law - that the wages of sin is death (Gn 2:7; Rom 6:23) - without neglecting its great aspect of mercy (Dt 13:17; Ps 116:2-117:4; Hos 6:6). This mercy is offered freely to all repentant sinners.
 
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GreekOrthodox

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Is there a deeper theological context with regard to the mosaic law, for example, with this act, Jesus was mandated to kill her. Was the Mosaic law nullified, and under what law was it nullified?

Deut 22:22

"If a man is found sleeping with another man’s wife, both the man who slept with her and the woman must die. You must purge the evil from Israel."

First, the crowd only brought the woman, which was against the law you quote.

Second, the Jews did not have the right to use the death penalty under Roman authority.

So like the tax to Rome, this was most likely another set up to try to undermine Jesus's popularity.
 
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Setyoufree

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Christ's answer confounds the Pharisees, for He upholds a great principle of the Law - that the wages of sin is death (Gn 2:7; Rom 6:23) - without neglecting its great aspect of mercy (Dt 13:17; Ps 116:2-117:4; Hos 6:6). This mercy is offered freely to all repentant sinners.

The law is not in the business of mercy & forgiveness. The law, wherever it finds transgression, brings the curse.

The law is perfectly just in demanding the death of the sinner for if the sinner where taken to heaven, heaven would cease being heaven and it would become like this sin polluted world.
 
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Setyoufree

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Is there a deeper theological context with regard to the mosaic law, for example, with this act, Jesus was mandated to kill her. Was the Mosaic law nullified, and under what law was it nullified?

Deut 22:22

"If a man is found sleeping with another man’s wife, both the man who slept with her and the woman must die. You must purge the evil from Israel."

I wish you wouldn't call it the Mosaic law. Yes, the law was given through Moses, but it is God's law. The law of God demands obedience. It says, this do and you shall live, but cursed is he who does not obey it in every detail.

The Jews had lived in bondage among the Egyptians for over 400 years. They were no doubt indoctrinated in those Pagan religions. All pagan religions believe in appeasing an angry god in order to gain the after life. This is probably why the Jews entered into the Old Covenant with God.

Didn't God know they could keep the law?

Yes!

The problem is the Jews didn't know. So God entered this covenant with them. It was never God's intent to establish the Old Covenant. That's why He said, "Heb 8:7 For if that first covenant had been faultless, then would no place have been sought for a second. 8 For finding fault with them (the Jews), he saith, Behold, the days come, saith the Lord, That I will make a new covenant with the house of Israel and with the house of Judah; 9 Not according to the covenant that I made with their fathers In the day that I took them by the hand to lead them forth out of the land of Egypt; For they continued not in my covenant,...."

Clearly Christ's objective was to establish a new covenant. Under the Old death was the punishment for sin.

What about the new covenant?

Romans 8:1 Therefore, there is now no condemnation for those who are in Christ Jesus, 2 because through Christ Jesus the law of the Spirit of life set me free from the law of sin and death.

Now look what Christ said to the woman caught in adultery....Here's the story:

John 8:3 The teachers of the law and the Pharisees brought in a woman caught in adultery. They made her stand before the group 4 and said to Jesus, "Teacher, this woman was caught in the act of adultery. 5 In the Law, Moses commanded us to stone such women. Now what do you say?" 6 They were using this question as a trap, in order to have a basis for accusing him. But Jesus bent down and started to write on the ground with his finger. 7 When they kept on questioning him, he straightened up and said to them, "If any one of you is without sin, let him be the first to throw a stone at her." 8 Again he stooped down and wrote on the ground. 9 At this, those who heard began to go away one at a time, the older ones first, until only Jesus was left, with the woman still standing there. 10 Jesus straightened up and asked her, "Woman, where are they? Has no one condemned you?" 11 "No one, sir," she said. "Then neither do I condemn you," Jesus declared. "Go now and leave your life of sin (adultery)."
 
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graceandpeace

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I think for the Christian it means to be merciful to others, because none of us are without sin. As far as what was happening in the moment the woman was brought before Jesus, I think it was, as already suggested, probably another attempt to "trap" Him & hurt His ministry. I don't know of any deeper meaning to be gleaned other than what I already said, in that we should be merciful.
 
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xTx

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Is there a deeper theological context with regard to the mosaic law, for example, with this act, Jesus was mandated to kill her. Was the Mosaic law nullified, and under what law was it nullified?

Deut 22:22

"If a man is found sleeping with another man’s wife, both the man who slept with her and the woman must die. You must purge the evil from Israel."

Good question. I hope you are open to my interpretation. If not it is ok.

We can agree to disagree respectfully :)

Here is my interpretation -

The law was revoked forever by Jesus Christ.

Here is the new law as laid out in the New Testament

This new law laid out by Jesus distinguishes Christianity from all other religions.

Jesus's teachings lifts mankind who obey God to a higher level of glorifying God.

The great treasure which is all Jesus's teachings is not found in any other religion on earth today.

Personally to me, Jesus's teachings is the truth from God because no man will imagine such teachings because in all man's heart, we wish harm on those who trespass against us. Anyone who teaches otherwise, is from God, our Creator.

Gospel According to Saint John Chapter 8

The woman taken in adultery. Christ justifies his doctrine.

[1] And Jesus went unto mount Olivet. [2] And early in the morning he came again into the temple, and all the people came to him, and sitting down he taught them. [3] And the scribes and the Pharisees bring unto him a woman taken in adultery: and they set her in the midst, [4] And said to him: Master, this woman was even now taken in adultery. [5] Now Moses in the law commanded us to stone such a one. But what sayest thou?

[6] And this they said tempting him, that they might accuse him. But Jesus bowing himself down, wrote with his finger on the ground. [7] When therefore they continued asking him, he lifted up himself, and said to them: He that is without sin among you, let him first cast a stone at her. [8] And again stooping down, he wrote on the ground. [9] But they hearing this, went out one by one, beginning at the eldest. And Jesus alone remained, and the woman standing in the midst. [10] Then Jesus lifting up himself, said to her: Woman, where are they that accused thee? Hath no man condemned thee?

Here Jesus is putting an end to laws that punish people by stoning, cutting off limbs etc. In other words, people who break moral laws are no longer punished with physical punishment. God just wants the person to repent and not sin again.

[11] Who said: No man, Lord. And Jesus said: Neither will I condemn thee. Go, and now sin no more. [12] Again therefore, Jesus spoke to them, saying: I am the light of the world: he that followeth me, walketh not in darkness, but shall have the light of life. [13] The Pharisees therefore said to him: Thou givest testimony of thyself: thy testimony is not true. [14] Jesus answered, and said to them: Although I give testimony of myself, my testimony is true: for I know whence I came, and whither I go: but you know not whence I come, or whither I go. [15] You judge according to the flesh: I judge not any man.

Here it shows that God knows that even after Jesus has taught us His ways, there will always be Pharisees who will ignore God and do as they please.

Gospel According to Saint Matthew Chapter 5

[38] You have heard that it hath been said, An eye for an eye, and a tooth for a tooth. [39] But I say to you not to resist evil: but if one strike thee on thy right cheek, turn to him also the other: [40] And if a man will contend with thee in judgment, and take away thy coat, let go thy cloak also unto him.

Gospel According to Saint Luke Chapter 6

[41] And why seest thou the mote in thy brother' s eye: but the beam that is in thy own eye thou considerest not? [42] Or how canst thou say to thy brother: Brother, let me pull the mote out of thy eye, when thou thyself seest not the beam in thy own eye? Hypocrite, cast first the beam out of thy own eye; and then shalt thou see clearly to take out the mote from thy brother' s eye. [43] For there is no good tree that bringeth forth evil fruit; nor an evil tree that bringeth forth good fruit. [44] For every tree is known by its fruit. For men do not gather figs from thorns; nor from a bramble bush do they gather the grape. [45] A good man out of the good treasure of his heart bringeth forth that which is good: and an evil man out of the evil treasure bringeth forth that which is evil. For out of the abundance of the heart the mouth speaketh.

Jesus knows the hearts of man well, he knows therefore He left us Saint Luke 6:44 to 6:45.

In Saint Matthew Chapter 6, Jesus teaches that we must pray without disturbing others.

Gospel According to Saint Matthew Chapter 6

[6] But thou when thou shalt pray, enter into thy chamber, and having shut the door, pray to thy Father in secret: and thy Father who seeth in secret will repay thee. [7] And when you are praying, speak not much, as the heathens. For they think that in their much speaking they may be heard. [8] Be not you therefore like to them, for your Father knoweth what is needful for you, before you ask him. [9] Thus therefore shall you pray: Our Father who art in heaven, hallowed be thy name. [10] Thy kingdom come. Thy will be done on earth as it is in heaven.

[11] Give us this day our supersubstantial bread. [12] And forgive us our debts, as we also forgive our debtors. [13] And lead us not into temptation. But deliver us from evil. Amen. [14] For if you will forgive men their offences, your heavenly Father will forgive you also your offences. [15] But if you will not forgive men, neither will your Father forgive you your offences.


In summary, no more stoning, chopping off limbs, praying in public, and in order to enter heaven, we must forgive others or else God will not forgive us our sins.

Hope this helps.
 
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Setyoufree

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Here is my interpretation -

The law was revoked forever by Jesus Christ.

Let's examine this:

Gal 4:4 "But when the time had fully come, God sent his Son, born of a woman, born under law, 5 to redeem those under law...."


Christ came and joined Himself to our humanity and in so doing He, as the Son of Man, was born under law in order that He could legally redeem those under law.

So Christ came to save the human race from under law, but not by doing away with the law. Instead He took upon His sinless Deity our fallen human life. On the cross Christ came under the curse of the law. That wouldn't be possible if the law were "revoked".

Now turn to Gal 3:13 "Christ redeemed us from the curse of the law by (doing away with the law)?:confused:

No, that's not what the Bible teaches.

"Christ redeemed us from the curse of the law by becoming a curse for us".

If you do away with the law then Christ's death for sinners becomes meaningless.

If Christ did away with the law then sinful mankind does not need to be redeemed from under its curse.

Clearly Christ came to deliver us from under law, but He didn't do this by "revoking" the law.

If you still don't buy what I am saying turn to Matthew 5:17

"Do not think that I have come to abolish the Law or the Prophets; I have not come to abolish them but to fulfill them. 18 I tell you the truth, until heaven and earth disappear, not the smallest letter, not the least stroke of a pen, will by any means disappear from the Law until everything is accomplished."

Has the world we live in come to an end? No! Therefore the law of God is alive and well.

Does that mean the believer is under the law's jurisdiction.

No!

Why? To be under law is death for all of us are a bunch of sinners, even though we are growing in grace.

Therefore, to legally redeem us from under law, Christ had to assume your life 2000 yrs ago. He did this by assuming the life we all share (Adam's life) and when the Son of Man died, you too died in Him.

Don't believe me?

Rom 6:6 ...."our old self (our old life from Adam) was crucified with him so that the body of sin might be done away with...."

Rom 7:4 "you (your life from Adam) also died to the law (the law demanded your death) through the body of Christ..."

So the law has not been abolished. Instead the law has been legally satisfied or fulfilled. Since your old life died the curse, the law has been satisfied and it no longer recognizes you as living.

Since you died with Christ the law no recognizes you as living. The law has no jurisdiction over the dead, just the living. A Christian has died to the law in Christ and therefore the law can't touch him.

Romans 7:6 " ...by dying to what once bound us (the law), we have been released from the law so that we serve in the new way of the Spirit, and not in the old way of the written code (i.e., obey & live, disobey & die)."
 
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PaladinValer

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Fact actually. Scholarship is fairly certain that it was an interpolation. The oldest surviving sources that would have included it, P66 & P75, don't have it, nor does Codeces Sinaiticus or Vaticanus. Furthermore, of the 23 Old Latin sources we have, only 6 have it, and sometimes only in part. Furthermore, when it was actually mentioned by a very early Church Father, it was never mentioned to be a part of St. John's Gospel. Papias, who lived in the 2nd century, said it was found in the Gospel of the Hebrews. Only by later, Nicene-era Fathers, like St. Didymous the Blind, is it mentioned to be in St. John's Gospel, but since the two famous codeces mentioned above are contemporaries of his, then it may be confidently stated that it was by then only begun to be included, and obviously not by all.

Furthermore, GratiaCorpusChristi never said it isn't inspired or important theologically, only that it isn't part of the Gospel as originally written.
 
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Sword of the Lord

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I'm well aware of the controversy surrounding the passage, and the history of it. Gratia said that it isn't part of the Bible, so who cares. To me that sounded like he was saying it's not inspired text, which is false.
 
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PaladinValer

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I'm well aware of the controversy surrounding the passage, and the history of it. Gratia said that it isn't part of the Bible, so who cares. To me that sounded like he was saying it's not inspired text, which is false.

So your argument is "if someone says it isn't in the Holy Bible, it isn't inspired"?

Two follow up questions:

  1. What does that say about your newfound Eastern Orthodox beliefs?
  2. How much do you actually know of GratiaCorpusChristi's actual beliefs?
 
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