How does copying and pasting something negate any of the arguments? For the most part it's subjectural opinion and little else. Can you answer my earlier point in regards to the greek words 'aionian' and 'aidios'? Why is aidios used at all in the bible if aion and derivatives were sufficient to denote eternal? What were the authors thinking of? There'd be no question with 'aidios' so why isn't that strict term used overall?
allow me to translate it the "universalist way" (good to know you have thick skin

unfortunately that means you are less open to ideas, opinions and thoughts.)
The universalists are fond of translating Bible verses and transliterating a particular word. So, I will use their style in the following translation:
And these will go away into aionion punishment,
but the righteous into aionion life.
(with this type of translation, it is easy to confuse what the text is really saying because the reader is not familiar with the Greek word "aionion." The Universalists often do this: partially translate a verse leaving a transliterated Greek word or two in place of English words. They can then tell you what the word "really means." This can be misleading.)
Or, to take a little liberty, it could be translated as,
And these will go away into non "aionion" punishment,
but the righteous into "aionion" life."
I inserted the word "non" here to reflect what the universalists intend the word "aionion" to mean when describing punishment -- but not life. Notice it isn't there when describing life because the Universalist believes that the life of the righteous is without end: eternal. This is the kind of thing the universalist must do in order to justify his position. It is clearly false and demonstrates an intrusion into the text of a theological perspective. This is something Jehovah's Witnesses do when they "translated" the Bible. They changed words to make them agree with their theology.
Nevertheless, another translation according to universalist presuppositions might be:
"And these will go away into non-eternal punishment, but the righteous into eternal life."
But, the universalists state that "aionion" is an age, a period of time that can have a finish. They would then answer this objection and say that punishment is for a time and so is life, but that both of these are for an "aionion" period and
after each period is another. In the case of the aionion punishment, it would end and then after that, they would have eternal life. Likewise those possessing eternal life already in the aionion "age" will continue to have it in the next age. The only problem is that that isn't what the text is saying. Jesus isn't setting up a time duration argument. He is telling us that there is eternal life and eternal death.
The universalists have constructed a multi-age scenario to fit their perspective. In so doing, they have allowed for the occurrence of salvation after death, another teaching that is unbiblical.
Heb. 9:27 says, "
And inasmuch as it is appointed for men to die once and after this comes judgment," (NASB). The judgment comes from God and is upon the sinner. The universalist would have some sort of a judgment that leads to punishment that ends and then there is eternal salvation in the afterlife. In so teaching, they have ignored the translations of countless scholars and adopted those interpretations that agree with them in order to suit their theological bias. This is something they do very frequently, and with a vengence since they often turn a harsh tone towards those who do not agree with them.
I hope you can see the inconsistency of translating and interpreting
Matt. 25:46 any other way than stating that the punishment is eternal as is the life of the righteous.