Darren Court
Active Member
Actually I think I see it slightly but significantly differently.OK I see where we are coming unstuck (I think)
There is a difference between the inspired recording of an event in Scripture and the nature of the event itself.
Jesus said to Peter 'get behind me Satan' addressing the source of Peter's uttered words.
Peter was not speaking God's Word at the time.
The fact that Peters words are recorded in scripture doesn't change the fact that they were inspired by Satan in the moment.
The same applies to the temptation of Jesus.
But folks have this weird belief that all of a sudden whatever is recorded in Scripture must have been God's Word initially in the historic moment - this is folly.
The reason why they believe this is that they have a wrong understanding of the nature of Scripture and have elevated Scripture to divine status not realising that Scripture and God's Eternal Word are distinct.
Scripture is a record of some of the Word's of God that He may breath on for our understanding.
.
What you quite well described is man's viewpoint. Since Satan was motivated to temp Christ, his words couldn't possibly be God's intention, desire or inspired. Makes perfect sense from man's viewpoint because we are time constrained. Time works moment by moment in one sequential direction.
.
That is not how God sees time and we struggle to understand some of the most simplest elements of this truth. Such that God being present in all time at the same time really doesn't compute. Put it this way, God is no more with me in this moment than He is also with Christ being tempted by Satan or for that matter with Adam and Eve having the discussion about their sin...... and more importantly than He is with us all at the end of time judging our actions, our words, etc.
.
This means to God, Satan's words were as much in the past before he spoke them as they were in future. This is huge because it means there is no moment when from God's point of view, things were decided. He didn't decide to include Satan's words after Satan spoke them but before Satan fell from heaven. He knew the words Satan would speak, either through through foreknowledge or control, it doesn't matter. He knew Satan would say them and He planned their inclusion in His book in much the same way He knew the words Paul would write and they were to be included, etc.
.
To clarify further, I would ask you to consider two things.... i) Did everything Paul write get included in scripture? I'm pretty sure it didn't... not least because he seemed prolific in writing and there's not much for all the churches he set up ii) Did Paul know the words he was writing were divinely inspired? I'm not sure he did, because he never actually says so and I think we'd expect him to say so if he knew. The point is I don't think Paul knew he was writing God's "living and active" word, which beggars the question... Did God make Paul write the words or did God know the words Paul would write and ensure only those He forechose to be scripture? I don't think it matters which, because God takes ownership of those words in His book, just like He takes ownership of Satan's words.
.
I want to end, if you'll allow me, on the fact that I'm not sure any of these has any real importance. Fun as it is to work through such matters to discern more about God and His character, I think scripture stands to point our focus on the matters in hand. In this case on how Satan tempted Christ using desire, pride and vanity through scripture, and how those are His tactics against us.
Upvote
0