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This whole issue was supposed to be settled in Acts chapter fifteen. Any questions?
I disagree. "God's law" was before "the law".I’m glad you agree. Some posters will not agree, even with multiple witnesses from both the Law/Prophets & the NT.
God only has 1 law, and it is the law he gave to Moses, which you agree that the “law of Moses” is the law of God.
“God’s law” is modern, English phrasing. It didn’t exist in the Bible days, because they didn’t speak and write the way we do with the English language.
God’s law is the law of Moses
God’s law = the law of God
“the law” being spoken of in 1 Corinthians 9 is the pesky oral law that keeps popping up
Saint Steven said: ↑
"You have heard it said..." = hearsay.
Do I have any questions? Just one. Were the ancestors under Torah or Talmud?I have no questions I'm about to release a study on Acts 15. The pro Torah crowd won against the Talmud crowd. The Torah FTW! Do you have any questions?
Nope. It is a quote. (see the quote marks?)LOL! It was said in the Torah. By you quoting that verse, by your standard; you are presenting hearsay evidence. Either way your argument fails.
You would have to say, that if gentiles are required to follow Torah, Christ's disciples/the early church gave gentiles a licence to sin. Acts15:19 could not avoid that being true. God's laws are not arbitrary, you cannot pick and choose which ones you follow and which ones you don't. Acts15:19 was not the reality anyway, years later, the Jerusalem church confirmed to Paul they were still not requiring Gentiles to follow any more laws than was asked in Acts ch15(Acts21:25) So the NT church must have given gentiles a licence to sin their whole lives if some peoples views are correctDo I have any questions? Just one. Were the ancestors under Torah or Talmud?
Acts 15:10
Now then, why do you try to test God by putting on the necks of Gentiles a yoke that neither we nor our ancestors have been able to bear?
Well, of course. But why did Jesus state it this way? Something very unique is going on there. If it is common, show me other examples. Thanks.@HARK! has a point. They would hear the Torah being read... that’s how you knew what the Torah said, because you heard it.
faith comes by HEARING...
You didn't answer my question. Ancestors: under Torah or Talmud?You would have to say, that if gentiles are required to follow Torah, Christ's disciples/the early church gave gentiles a licence to sin. Acts15:19 could not avoid that being true. God's laws are not arbitrary, you cannot pick and choose which ones you follow and which ones you don't. Acts15:19 was not the reality anyway, years later, the Jerusalem church confirmed to Paul they were still not requiring Gentiles to follow any more laws than was asked in Acts ch15(Acts21:25) So the NT church must have given gentiles a licence to sin their whole lives if some peoples views are correct
I disagree. "God's law" was before "the law".
Romans 5:13-14
To be sure, sin was in the world before the law was given, but sin is not charged against anyone’s account where there is no law. 14 Nevertheless, death reigned from the time of Adam to the time of Moses, even over those who did not sin by breaking a command, as did Adam, who is a pattern of the one to come.
I dont think this post was meant for me was it?You didn't answer my question. Ancestors: under Torah or Talmud?
Saint Steven said: ↑
Do I have any questions? Just one. Were the ancestors under Torah or Talmud?
Acts 15:10
Now then, why do you try to test God by putting on the necks of Gentiles a yoke that neither we nor our ancestors have been able to bear?
Acts 15:10
Now then, why do you try to test God by putting on the necks of Gentiles a yoke that neither we nor our ancestors have been able to bear?
No. It is very specific to these few verses.God’s law is an English phrase that is equivalent to the law of God...
You didn't answer my question. Ancestors: under Torah or Talmud?
You didn't answer my question. Ancestors: under Torah or Talmud?This argument came from the pro Torah party. It was against the the arguments of the Talmud party
Does it matter why? What would it matter if he said “it is written” vs “you have heard it said”?Well, of course. But why did Jesus state it this way? Something very unique is going on there. If it is common, show me other examples. Thanks.
Peter was referring to the Torah then. Ha! -- Here's my question:YHWH never called his people to follow the Talmud. Yahshua rebuked putting the Talmud over the Torah.
That's four of the six. Where are the other two?Does it matter why? What would it matter if he said “it is written” vs “you have heard it said”?
there’s not some mysterious teaching going on here - He’s just talking to a culture which has heard these commandments, and expounding on them... it’s not that deep.
Matthew 5:21
Ye have heard that it was said by them of old time, Thou shalt not kill(murder); and whosoever shall kill(murder) shall be in danger of the judgment:
Exodus 20:13
Thou shall not kill(murder)
Matthew 5:27
Ye have heard that it was said by them of old time, Thou shalt not commit adultery:
Exodus 20:14
Thou shalt not commit adultery
1 Corinthians 9:21
To those not having the law I became like one not having the law (though I am not free from God’s law but am under Christ’s law), so as to win those not having the law.
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