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True Justification, works of the Law of Moses, & Conditional Security

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Meowzltov

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Do you really a think a loving parent would consider thei9r childs place in the family threatened until they said sorry for breaking one of their rules? It isn't possible
I would. But I confess there would be a limit. If my child were so violent that my life and the life of my husband and other children were threatened, that child would be out of my home for good.
 
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Meowzltov

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Having no license to sin was not new. It was part of the Mosaic Covenant as well. That's why people don't typically list it as core to the New Covenant. It's simply assumed.
 
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Bible Highlighter

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Weve all accepted that Jason, but as you have responded, let me ask you the same question everyone else appears reluctant to answer.
Is observing the law not committing sin?
Well, it depends on what you mean by the word "law." Not every reference to the word "law" is the same. There is the word "Law" as in reference to the Law of Moses (Which the book of Romans and Galatians talk primarily about). Then there is the New Testament's Commands or Laws. The NT Laws have been referred to as the Royal Law, the Law of Christ, the Law of Faith, the Law of the Spirit of Life in Christ Jesus, and the Law of Liberty. Obviously we are not under the Law of Moses. But we are told to obey many Commands in the New Testament by Jesus Himself. For Jesus said if you love me, you will keep my Commandments (John 14:15). Paul said that what he had written should be regarded as the Lord's Commandments (1 Corinthians 14:37). Are you aware that even believing on Jesus Christ is a Commandment or Law? See 1 John 3:23. So laws or Commands from God are not the problem. The problem is when someone tries to follow the Old Law when it is no longer binding anymore. The problem is when someone thinks that they are doing something to save themselves of their own power alone. The problem is when someone thinks they can just live a good life without repenting of their sins, and without accepting Jesus in their heart, and without believing that He died, was buried, and was risen again for their salvation.

For the Antinomian will try and justify sin on some level and say that they can get away with it in certain cases. This belief leads people into sin. For many even misunderstand such a belief and take it as a license to sin (For if the Antinomian does not explain themselves properly in regards to how they are not under the Law salvation wise, then people are going to easily think they have a license to sin - even if that was not the Antinomian's intention).

The Man Directed Works Salvationist seeks to make up man made rules so as to be saved and they look to be saved by an overemphasis on what they do alone.

A proper understanding of Soteriology is that if Jesus lives in a person, then His fruit or good work will be evident in their life. For if there is bad fruit, then it is evidence that one does not have Christ living inside them. For Salvation is Relationship-ism. It's not Works Salvationism nor is it Antinomianism (i.e. an ignoring of God's moral law). Jesus saves us both in Justificaton (By His death, burial, and resurrection) and in Sanctification (For Christ was manifested to destroy the works of the devil - 1 John 3:8).

But to answer your question: Is observing the Law not committing sin? Well, if you were observing the New Testament Law (Including the Law that tells us to believe on Jesus - 1 John 3:23), then I would say.... "yes." But if you are referring to Works Salvationism or to the Old Law, then the answer would be a.... "no."

But do not fool yourself. Sin is transgression of the Law (1 John 3:4). It's what the Bible says. If we were not under no law whatseover of any kind then we could not sin whatsoever in any way.

Think about it.


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Meowzltov

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Paul clearly states in rom1:17 the Christian has one righteousness from first to last, the whole of their Christian life, faith in christ
Which is different than the old definition of righteousness.
 
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Meowzltov

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The answer is the same: the 613 for Jews, and NT laws for Gentiles.
 
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stuart lawrence

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Thank you, then do you agree with the following? If you do not please explain why you do not.
If we can reach agreement here I am happy to move forward with you also:


Paul states:
Therefore no one will be declared righteous in his sight by observing the law. Rom 3:20
For we maintain a man is justified by faith apart from observing the law rom 3:28
We who are Jews by birth and not gentile sinners know that a man is not justified by observing the law but by faith in Jesus Christ. So we too have put our faith in Christ Jesus that we might be justified by faith in Christ and not by observing the law, because by observing the law no one will be justified gal2:15&16

Observing the law is not committing sin. Paul states plainly no one will be justified/righteous before God by observing the law, and observing the law is not committing sin. Therefore the Christian has a righteousness/justification before God apart from sin in their life.
Therefore, in that case, is it correct to say, Jesus MUST have died for all your sins at Calvary, past, present and future?
 
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And Paul is clearly talking about the observing of the Law of Moses alone as a means of salvation. The context of Romans 3 says this,

"What advantage, then, is there in being a Jew, or what value is there in circumcision?" (Romans 3:1).

And the context of Galatians 2 is,

"But neither Titus, who was with me, being a Greek, was compelled to be circumcised: And that because of false brethren unawares brought in, who came in privily to spy out our liberty which we have in Christ Jesus, " (Galatians 2:3-4).

Circumcision is a part of the Old Law and not the New Law.

Paul is not against the words of Jesus Christ and the doctrine of Godliness. Again, read 1 Timothy 6:3-4.


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stuart lawrence

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As Paul kept on repeating observing the law as the core of his Gospel message without going into detail as you have concerning it, I think it is safe to presume you are overcomplicating a simply statement. As others are stating in this debate, and quite correctly, it was one whole law
 
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stuart lawrence

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Your belief Paul was only talking about the law of Moses has been thoroughly refuted by me many times over with scripture and explanations. Others are stating in this debate the truth. It was one whole law
 
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stuart lawrence

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Paul is not against the words of Jesus Christ and the doctrine of Godliness. Again, read 1 Timothy 6:3-4.


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Paul said to obey the law of Christ you must carry each others burdens(gal6:2) but you make the mistake of looking to the literal letter of all of them. Will you yield to what Paul wrote? Or will you change the text to something it does not say?
 
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Funny, I can say the same for you about changing what the text says. I don't think any verse I quote is going to help you. You see what you want to see. And this is why I am trying to end the conversation with you in regards to this topic.

Anyways, may God bless you.






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JLB777

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Why did you not answer my question? Is observing the law not committing sin?

Your question is vague.

If you are referring to the law of Moses, then you need to start with physical circumcision, or nothing you do is relevant.

And I testify again to every man who becomes circumcised that he is a debtor to keep the whole law.

If you keep part of the law, you are obligated to keep all the law.

Not keeping all the law is sin.


If you are referring to God's law that Abraham kept by faith, then of course it's not sin to obey God's laws.



JLB
 
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stuart lawrence

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It is one whole law. Two people have been able to answer the question. I admire them for doing so. As you are clearly trying to fudge/evade answering a very simple question I am sure you will not expect me to answer any questions you might want to put to ne. Clearly Paul felt he didn't need to expand on such a simple statement as you are trying to do to avoid answering
Clearly you struggle to accept the core basis of Paul's message
 
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expos4ever

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I don't think I'd say that Christ is the end of the law unto righteousness.
But Paul directly says that it is:

For Christ is the end of the law for righteousness to everyone who believes.

What do you think Paul means in these words?

He said that the Law would not pass away until heaven and earth passed away.
Jesus was a product of his times and culture and we in the modern west have been careless in understanding the implications. On a surface reading, Matthew 5:18 is indeed a challenge to those of us who think the Law of Moses has been retired. Those who hold the opposing view have their own challenges to face, such as Ephesians 2:15 (and Romans 7) which declare the abolition of the Law of Moses.

Do not think that I came to abolish the Law or the Prophets; I did not come to abolish but to fulfill. 18"For truly I say to you, until heaven and earth pass away, not the smallest letter or stroke shall pass from the Law until all is accomplished. 19"Whoever then annuls one of the least of these commandments, and teaches others to do the same, shall be called least in the kingdom of heaven; but whoever keeps and teaches them, he shall be called great in the kingdom of heaven

How can one read this text and think that the Law of Moses remains in force, given that heaven and earth are still here?

There is a way to faithfully read this text and still claim that Law of Moses was retired 2000 years ago as Paul so forcefully argues (e.g. Eph 2:15): In Hebrew culture, “end of the world” language was commonly used metaphorically to invest commonplace events with theological significance.

This is not mere speculation – we have concrete evidence. Isaiah writes:

10For the stars of heaven and their constellations
Will not flash forth their light;
The sun will be dark when it rises
And the moon will not shed its light


What was going on? Babylon was being destroyed, never to be rebuilt. There are other examples of use of “end of the world” imagery to describe much more “mundane” events within the present space-time manifold.

So it is possible that Jesus is not referring to the destruction of matter, space, and time as the criteria for the retirement of the Law. But what might He mean here? What is the real event for which “heaven and earth passing away” is an apocalyptic metaphor?

It is Jesus’ death on the Cross where He proclaims “It is accomplished”. Note how this dovetails perfectly with the 5:18 declaration that the Law would remain until all is accomplished. Seeing things this way allows us to honour the established tradition of metaphorical end-of-the-world imagery and to take Paul at his word in his many statements which clearly denote the work of Jesus as the point in time at which Law of Moses was retired.
 
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JLB777

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Pfft. Each law stands on its own. Every time we break a single law, we sin. I get tired of Christians shrugging off the Law by saying, "Well I can't keep all of it, so why try."

Which law.

Abraham walked in obedience to God's commandments and laws 430 years before the law of Moses was added.

God's laws are eternal.

Moses law was temporary.


Example:

Stoning people to death for picking up sticks on the Sabbath is part of the law of Moses.

The Sabbath as a day of rest was instituted from the beginning.

The ordinance for keeping the Sabbath and the penalty for breaking the Sabbath came with the law of Moses, not the Sabbath itself.


The law of Moses was added to the Abraham covenant until the Seed should come.

The Seed has come.

Do not murder is just as relevant today, as it was in the garden of Eden.


JLB
 
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stuart lawrence

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Then why did you respond to what I wrote? You and I couldn't get past the core basics of the message for you refused to accept it. You tried to change the text to mean something other than what it stated
 
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expos4ever

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This is correct. The Council of Jerusalem affirmed that Gentiles could remain Gentiles and had no need to follow Jewish law. The bulk of Paul's epistles were meant to sooth Gentiles in understanding that they did not need to follow Jewish law.
I agree, but Paul also promoted the idea that Jews also should stop following the Law. Yes, Paul did, at times, follow the Law but I think we can reasonably assume he did this as a pragmatic measure to not offend - the case that Paul sees the Law of Moses as retired fully for all is really very strong indeed:

23But before faith came, we were kept in custody under the law, being shut up to the faith which was later to be revealed. 24Therefore the Law has become our tutor to lead us to Christ, so that we may be justified by faith.25But now that faith has come, we are no longer under a tutor.

Is this not crystal clear?
 
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JLB777

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Avoid answering?

What a joke.

I answered your vague question, and clarified my answer.

When you say observing the law, do you mean the law of Moses?

Either clarify your vague question, or continue your logical fallacy in futility.

Or, maybe you just simply don't understand the difference in the law of Moses and the laws and commandments that Abraham obeyed.



JLB
 
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JLB777

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Amen!
 
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