Here's some scriptures on tithing, including pre-law and post law.
Tithing can be done as a form of worship.
Those who feel it's an obligation are missing the spirit of thankfulness and the spirit of giving behind tithing.
And you feel that handing that tithe over to religious church organizations is the same as giving to God?
Please show us scripture why you think this is true?
NON-LAW
*Abraham tithes (10%) on something he won. Hebrews 7:2, Genesis 14:20
Abraham tithed not one red cent from his own personal property, which was still up in northern Canaan. We today have no spoils from which to tithe, so how is it that you say we are to follow his example?
At no time in Israel's history did they ever follow Abraham's example of handing over a tenth of the spoils to the priests.
If you believe otherwise, then please demonstrate such from scripture.
*Jacob tithes (10%) of all the Lord gives him. Genesis 28:22
Nobody knows for sure that Jacob did any such thing. He
promised a tithe based upon
preconditions he tried to
place upon the Lord. Do you think that's a positive example of how we should give? Please elaborate on the basis of what's actually stated in scripture.
*NT tithe (10%) of all that you possess. Luke 18:12
Can you show us in that parable where Jesus addressed that pharasee's bragging is a signal for us today to continue a practice of tithing from wages, which existed at no time throughout the record of scripture?
Better yet, considering Jesus was talking about a man who was obviously still under the Law, how that can possibly translate a non-existent tithe over to us today? Where did the Law ever demand tithes from the salaries of wage earners?
*NT Pharisee tithe 10% and Christ said to continue doing it. Matthew 23:23
How does Jesus telling the pharasee to continue obeying the Law have anything to do with us today? Jesus also told another man around that same timeframe to offer up burnt sacrifices. What of that?
*Honor the Lord with all your possession. Proverbs 3:9
What does that have to do with the tithe?
*NT tithing through Christ. Hebrews 6:20 and Hebrews 7:1-28
How does the measuring stick of the tithe in relation to priesthoods mean there was to be a continuance of something that never existed? At no time in the history of the Church, Israel or Judah did the Lord command a tithe from the wages of wage earners, and yet you seem to be pulling the "rabbit out of a hat" trick because I can't find anything in scripture that substantiates your interpretations.
LAW
*Lay aside a tithe of your increase for the Levite and the poor. Remove it from your house and give it. Deuteronomy 26:12-13
Which had nothing to do with the wages of wage earners.
*Tithe (10%) is holy to the Lord. Leviticus 27:30
Which had nothing to do with the wages of wage earners.
*The Israelites brought a tithe of everything, including produce. 2 Chronicles 31:5
Only those who possessed producing lands, orchards, vineyards, flocks and herds. Again, this had nothing to do with the wages of wage earners.
1st tithe to support those doing the Lord's work. Leviticus 27:30, Numbers 8
Which had nothing to do with the wages of wage earners.
2nd tithe to take family on yearly feast in God's presence. Deuteronomy 14:22-27
Which had nothing to do with the wages of wage earners.
3rd tithe is the 2 year poor tithe to look after the poor. Deuteronomy 14:28-29
Which had nothing to do with the wages of wage earners.
Tithe of the produce of the land to the Levites. Nehemiah 10:37
Which had nothing to do with the wages of wage earners.
Tithe of the tithe to the storehouse by the Levites. Nehemiah 10:38
Which had nothing to do with the wages of wage earners.
Malachi tithe into the storehouse. Malachi 3:10
Which had nothing to do with the wages of wage earners.
There's no command from God or Christ to stop tithing.
There's also no command from God to change His definition of the tithe to include the wages of wage earners.
Trying to prove something from a negative almost always leads to error.
BTW