I will offer another article on this topic. It is up to wheather or not you agree with it. I did not personally write this article. It will sound a bit incomplete in the begining because I pulled this portion out that deals specifically with 1Cort 13.
I CORINTHIANS 13
Does I Corinthians 13 harmonize with the things. that I have presented? "For we know in part, and we prophesy in part. But when that which is perfect is come, then that which is in part shall be done away." (v. 9-10) Note carefully the passage. There is the part, then there is the perfect; the fragment, then the complete. If the complete thing has arrived, then any claim to tongues (one of the "parts") is false. What is the complete thing? It is not Christ, and it is not heaven. There is no mention of Christ in the chapter. It would be strange to have such a vague reference to Christ, as this surely would be, since he is not mentioned anywhere else in the chapter. It is not heaven. Heaven is foreign to the context. There is not a single reference to heaven in the entire section that deals with the miraculous gifts (Chapters 12-14). Furthermore, heaven would destroy the contrast between the part and the complete thing. The contrast is not between the life now and the one to come, but between a part and a whole. What is the complete thing? The whole is composed of the parts: prophecy, tongues, and knowledge. These three equal divine revelation. The whole, or complete thing, is the written revelation - the New Testament. The complete revelation of God was given through miraculous gifts. When the revelation was completed, the gifts ceased.
THE APOSTOLIC "WE"
Read carefully I Corinthians 13:9. "For we know in part, and we prophesy in part" Why did Paul use the personal pronoun "we"? He does not say, "now Ye know in part and ye prophesy in part." Compare
this verse with I Corinthians 1:5, where he introduces the discussion of the miraculous gifts: "That in every thing ye are enriched by him, in all utterance, and in all knowledge." Notice how he uses the word "ye" in that passage. Why the personal pronoun "we" in I Corinthians 13:9? Paul's apostleship was under attack from false teachers. He uses the pronoun "we" as a reference to the apostles. He does the same thing in I Corinthians 2. The "we" in I Corinthians 2:6, 7, 12, 13, 16, and the "us" inverse 10, are all used in reference to the apostolic office. False teachers denied that Paul was equal to the rest of the apostles since he was not with Christ in his personal ministry. For this reason, Paul uses the pronoun "we" to show his equality with the other apostles. "Therefore whether it were I or they, so we preach, and so ye believed." (I Cor. 15:11) I Corinthians 2 has to do with the revelation given to the apostles. The "we" in 13:9 is an inspired "we" - a specific reference to the apostles and, therefore, the revelation and inspiration of the apostles.
Is it not true that the apostles received the revelation in part and then wrote it in completeness? Is that not what we have today? It's plain that the pronoun "we" was intended to signify the apostles, and the revelation of the gospel through them. When that was completed, the "part" ceased. The part and the whole are tied to the apostles. When they finished their work and had given the faith "once for all delivered unto the saints" (Jude 3, ASV), the part stopped. The apostles have completed their work. We have the complete thing - the New Testament. When one admits that apostolic revelation is complete, he admits that the gifts have ceased. The "we" in I Corinthians 13:9 settles the matter as to the ones that are under consideration. Paul used that pronoun to designate specifically the apostles. There's not the slightest question about the completeness of revelation today. Therefore, there is no question left about the miraculous gifts. The work of the apostles has ceased. Their work was the revelation of the gospel of Christ. The revelation of the gospel of Christ has been completed, and therefore the gifts that the apostles had, and provided to others by the laying on of hands, has ceased. The claims of Pentecostals to be able to heal and speak in tongues is a false claim.
I CORINTHIANS 13:12
"For now we see through a glass, darkly; but then face to face: now I know in part; but then shall I know even as also I am known." (I Cor. 13:12)
This passage, and those just discussed, is a reference to the partial knowledge while revelation was being given through miraculous gifts, as contrasted with full knowledge when revelation was completed. When revelation was completed, the Jewish state ended. It left nothing but Christ and the church. (Rev. 10:7) When revelation was completed, one could fully know the will of God. When one looks in a mirror he does not see another, he sees himself. The American Standard version (ASV) translates it "but then shall I know fully." Question: Can one know fully the will of God today? Do we have the full will of God in the New Testament? Is there still some revelation to be added to the New Testament? The answers to these questions are clear. We do have the full revelation of God. There is to be no further revelation. Look at verse 2: "And if I have the gift of prophecy, and know all mysteries . . ." (ASV) What does the "know" of verse 2 mean? It is a reference to knowledge based on divine revelation. In like manner, the "know" of verse 12 is the knowing that rests on divine revelation. We now have that in the New Testament. The "know" of Paul was knowledge in part, because revelation was in the process of being given.
When completed, there would be no further need for the miraculous that supplied the part. Is there anything in chapter 13 to identify the "know" of verse 12? There certainly is a key to the specific knowledge under consideration.
"And if I have the gift of prophecy, and know all mysteries and all knowledge; arid if I have all faith, so as to remove mountains, but have not love, I am nothing." (I Cor. 13:2, ASV)
Here are both the word "know" ("understand" in KJ) and the word "knowledge." Can one determine the how of "know" and the what of "knowledge" in verse 2? Two other words identify the how of "know" and the what of "knowledge." The "gift of prophecy" tells the how, and "mysteries" tells the what.
"For this cause I Paul, the prisoner of Jesus Christ for you Gentiles, If ye have heard of the dispensation of the grace of God which is given me to youward: How that by revelation he made known unto me the mystery; (as I wrote afore in few words, Whereby, when ye read, ye may understand my knowledge in the mystery of Christ) Which in other ages was not made known unto the sons of men, as it is now revealed unto his holy apostles and prophets by the Spirit; That the Gentiles should be fellowheirs, and of the same body, and partakers of his promise in Christ by the gospel:" (Eph. 3:1-6)
Here is a further divine commentary on the "know" and the "knowledge" of I Corinthians 13:2. Notice that the words in I Corinthians 13:2 are used by Paul in these verses in Ephesians. In the place of "prophecy" in I Corinthians 13:2, Paul used the words "apostles" and "prophets." Substituting the words "apostles" and "prophets" for the word "prophecy" in the Corinthian passage, we have the exact idea given. Look at the words: Apostles and prophets made known mystery and knowledge. Here is the how of "know" in I Corinthians 13:2. It was through miraculous gifts. Here is the what that is known: the mystery. This is specific written revelation.
Finally, Paul specifies the medium of completed revelation apostles and prophets. Does anyone have any problem with the meaning of the Ephesian passage? I think no one would contend that the revelation (miraculous) of this passage continues today or will continue in heaven. But the know; mystery, knowledge, apostles, and prophets, by the Spirit, are parallel with the same words in I Corinthians 13:2.
Since there can be no question about the "know" and the "knowledge" of verse 2, can it be established that this is the same "know" and "knowledge" of verse 12? Keep in mind the prophecy, know,
and knowledge of verse 2. Let us follow the thought through the chapter. "Charity never faileth: but whether there be prophecies,
they shall fail; whether there be tongues, they shall cease; whether there be knowledge, it shall vanish away." (I Cor. 13:8) Notice the things in the verse. In verses 1 and 2 we have tongues, prophecies, and knowledge. In verse 8 we have prophecy. tongues, and knowledge. 1 have already shown the meaning of "know" and "knowledge" in verse 2. Can anyone doubt that verse 8 is a reference to the same "know" and "knowledge"' There can be no mistake about this.
Let us continue to trace our "know." "For we know in part, and we prophecy in part." (I Cor. 13:9) Here are two of our words: "know" and "prophesy." But what kind of "know"? Answer: the know of prophecy. Since the `'prophesy" was in part. the "know" was in part. The "prophesy" of verse 9 is the same prophecy that we have traced through the chapter. It is prophecy that had to do with revelation.
"But when that which is perfect is come, then that which is in part shall be done away." (I Cor. 13:10) Now. watch verse 10: The word "but" is a contrasting word. What is being contrasted? It will not do to jump the track and ignore Paul's previous thoughts. There is no question but that. up to this point. Paul is discussing miraculous gifts in connection with the revelation of the gospel. The perfect (complete) is introduced by a contrasting word and does not refer to anything but the revelation of the gospel. Paul has already identified the "part" with "prophesy" in verse 9. Prophesy ties the "part" to revelation. Thus the contrast is between partial revelation, while the gospel was being revealed through the apostles and prophets. and completed revelation when the parts (miraculous gifts) would be done away.
Now we are ready for verse 12. "I know in part" has been used by Paul in relation to prophecy or miraculous gifts (verse 9). But this is a reference to the revelation of the gospel. The "know" has been proven to be the knowing by revelation and inspiration. The "but then shall I know fully" (ASV) of verse 12 is parellel to "But when that which is perfect is come" of verse 10.. The "know in part" and the "know fully" is the same contrast as that of verses 9 and 10. A contrast between partial knowledge while revelation was being given by miraculous gifts and a completed written revelation with the cessation of gifts since they are no longer needed. Paul puts "knowing in part" with prophecies and tongues. Paul uses tongue and prophecies to equal divine revelation. Paul stated definitely that prophecies and tongues, which equal divine knowledge given by miraculous gifts, would cease (v. 8). Paul set the time of cessation of prophecies and tongues to be when revelation was completed. (v. 10). Paul illustrates the "part" as equal to childhood and the "whole" as equal to maturity or manhood. Evidently Paul did not think that spiritual gifts were the ultimate of spirituality. Paul closes his discussion by insisting that when revelation was completed one would have all that he needed. Therefore, there is no place leg for miraculous gifts today. Paul completely refutes the Pentecostal claim for spiritual gifts today. Shall we believe Paul or the claims of Pentecostals?
