Yes, obviously. The same as the assumptions you are making about what the "inspiredness" of the Scriptures must necessitate. Pot, meet kettle.
Let's grant that this is true. What does that actually mean? What are the marks of inspiredness? What are the consequences of "inspiration" for the text itself? Simply saying that the Scriptures are "inspired" doesn't really tell us anything about what we should expect to see in the writing itself. This is primarily a result of the lack of other inspired literature against which to compare it. We don't have a "standard" of "what inspired literature looks like and the consequences that it produces in interpretation", so we have no way in which to say that we should expect anything particularly different between the ancient writers of "inspired" Scripture, and writers of "non-inspired" religious literature.
Of course, your response is that Scriptures are themselves the "standard"; but certainly you recognize the hopeless circularity of such a claim, a circularity which allows the interpreter to basically impute any and all assumptions whatsoever they like in order to define the marks of "inspiration".
Let's grant that it is not "just" ancient writing. Certainly you acknowledge that it is "still" ancient writing? If you grant this, then it's hard to understand how the interpretive rules for for ancient literature should be expected to be radically different from that of other ancient literature, especially when many of the early narratives and epics within Scripture bear such remarkable resemblance to similar epics and narratives within ANE literature that predates it...
Again, even if we grant this claim, it doesn't give us any information about we should handle the interpretation in such a way that would distinguish it from how we would interpret other ancient literature.
For example, let's take the Sumerian kings lists. They are full of numerology and assign to the listed rules outrageous (to the modern mind) "years" of rule.
In the early Genesis genealogies, we find extraordinarily similar "lists", with similarly numerological assignments.
Given the similarity between the two, it seems reasonable that we would apply similar standards to the interpretation of the "years". Do we interpret them as *actual* (from a modern historical perspective) years of rule/life, or do we look for meaning within the numerology of the "years"?
And to get at your argument, should we interpret one numerologically (the Sumerian kings list, for example) and the other historically? Does the nature of inspiration somehow require this bifurcation in methodology? Or is it more likely that one has a certain bias about what "inspiration" should mean (e.g., that "historical" things should accord with modern assumptions regarding historicity) and is imputing this to the interpretation? I would argue that the latter is the more likely in this example.
Again, you're not saying anything that has actual content. "Arbiter of truth" is a nice platitude, but the determination and evaluation of "truth" assumes a lot; how does one determine truth? It is absolutely based on the "historicity" of events? If so, I would argue that you are being unduly influenced by modern, western biases...biases which I would suggest the ancient writers did not share.
Again, you are importing a mountain of assumptions regarding "happened-ness". History is not a static, unchanging value. Our understanding of "history" is based on our philosophical biases, our worldview, our understanding of the universe, the principles that we apply when "demonstrating" the historical, etc. The question we must ask, then, is whether these assumptions were shared by the ancient authors? If they were, then I agree that the interpretive methodology is probably sound. However, if they do not share the same biases, and were not strictly concerned with reporting "happened-ness", then we would do a disservice to the text by imposing such requirements upon it.
No one is suggesting that the Scriptures aren't truth. The content is whether "truth" is solely located (as modern, historical-criticism assumes) in the "happened-ness" of narrative. I would argue that it is certainly not limited to this, and furthermore, would suggest that such a notion would be alien to the ancient writers.
A wonderfully convenient circularity of logic. But it doesn't actually say anything, other than that you are now empowered to impute whatever standards you desire into the interpretation of the text.
Every culture is unique to a certain extent. However, if you study the Hebrew literature against earlier religious literature of the more dominant, surrounding cultures, it is difficult to not see the borrowing of common narrative motifs woven throughout Genesis.
Yes, their religious institutions were different; however, there clearly wasn't a major philosophical leap required for them to move from worship of Jehovah to worship of foreign gods (as this is a persistent problem throughout the history of Israel). So it is quite an overstatement to suggest that their fundamental worldview was markedly different from that of the surrounding peoples. Once again, the usage of the common narrative motifs from ANE literature that are found within Scripture are sufficient evidence of this. After all, if their worldview was so fundamentally different, surely they would not have had any resonance with the supposedly alien "fables" of the surrounding cultures. And yet, we find exactly the opposite
It's clear that your reasoning is based on a hopelessly circular set of assumptions, assumptions which have absolutely no safeguard against the simple imposition of a western, modernist mindset on the ancient world of the Scriptures.