Lots of people read lots of books. The question is whether you have studied the relevant literature and research that is germane to the current discussion. Based on your seeming ignorance of the basic issues, I'm guessing that your curriculum did not include materials that would pertain to this topic.
No one has suggested that there is. You are the one who continues to try to slyly propose this as a meaningful criterion for this conversation. However, you haven't demonstrated anything particular to the Hebrew language that would suggest that it is the only source that is legitimate or necessary for a critical analysis of the ancient Hebrew Scriptures.
Yes, obviously. Without distinctiveness, they would not be understood as distinct "cultures." However, if we analyze the breadth of ANE literature (including Hebrew literature), it is pretty obvious that despite distinctive cultural features, there are nonetheless very common similarities regarding worldview, anthropology, etc. Even the most cursory study of the relevant literature would reveal this, a study which you have obviously not undertaken and which your illogical reticence would seemingly prohibit you from engaging.
Despite the command, they did not "stay free" of other cultures, and we see influences in all aspects of their culture, religious literature, political structures, etc. Even the Scriptures themselves outline these influences!!! Therefore, if even the Scriptures themselves make note of the significance of the influence of "alien" nations and peoples, why would we then assume that this influence was not at least in some way realized in the literature that the Hebrews wrote?
My argument has been that the authors and editors of the Genesis creation narrative co-opted the features and structures of the common creation epics that were extant (number of days of creation, the creation "events" that took place on those days, etc), inserting their own theological distinctiveness. To use a rough analogy, it would be akin to what the Wesley brothers did when they took the melodies of popular "bar songs" and added lyrics with deep theological content.
This "contradiction" in the theological meaning of a myth doesn't suddenly imbue the mythological structure with (what modern, western thinkings would understand as) historicity. You are simply overcome by the power of your own biases, and have deluded yourself into believing that that are proper filters to impose upon the text.
No one has suggested otherwise. What Speedwell and I have said consistently is only that historicity is not the exclusive repository of "truth", even though our modern, western biases would compel us to believe so.
I have suggested a few fairly obvious and well-accepted similarities already. You continue to ignore/dismiss them, but never actually dispute them other than sticking your fingers in your ears and yelling loudly about the legitimacy of your own biases. There are many, many other similarities. As I suggested earlier, if you are truly willing to explore the subject, I'm perfectly willing to tutor you, as well as suggest a good set of resources to study. I will not, however, waste my time with providing even deeper analysis when you have proven yourself either unwilling or incapable (or both) of meaningfully engaging the discussion.
No, I don't. What I do, however, is suspend my assumptions about what God being "in the equation" would look like. You seem to know what it should look like, and shockingly enough, it looks precisely like what your biases would expect.
No, this is yet another misrepresentation. I believe the Scriptures are unique, and while you can't possibly countenance this notion, I additional believe that the Scriptures are inspired. However, I also believe that they were written by actual people that had actual lives within the actual ancient world. As such, I believe that what they wrote would be in line with the assumptions and worldview that a ancient, near-eastern person would hold, not what a modern, western human thinks about the world. You, on the other hand, dehumanize the writers entirely by imposing your artificial hermeneutic upon the text.
It appears as "nonsense" to you because you don't want to engage the subject in an intellectually honest way. You are a slave to your biases, and are unwilling or unable to deal with any form of thinking that would challenge the hegemony of your thought.
Indeed. They were quite important to a lot of ancient cultures. So what?
No, it doesn't. You arrive at this conclusion because of your assumption of the necessary historicity of all narrative elements within the Scriptures. What you continue to ignore, however, is that there is no reason to assume that the ancients had the same understanding of such a "necessity" (and again, given the analysis of this form within the broader collection of similar writings within ANE literature, we have some reasons to believe that they had a different view entirely).
You are simply being obtuse. I'm not saying that Paul thought of Adam as a "mythological being". This category is a very modern, western one, a category which I certainly would not assume that Paul held as a part of his worldview. Your conflation of your own biases with the philosophical worldviews of the ancients continues to astound me.
This is only true if the writers have the same categories of historicity (and its necessity in genealogical information) in mind that you do. There is no reason to believe that they did (you certainly haven't substantiated that bias), and given what we know of ancient philosophy and worldviews by virtue of the critical analysis of the broad range of literature from the ancient world, there are good reasons to think that such strict categories were not at play.
Your usage of the phrase "exegetical malpractice" is humorous, given your admitted and wanton disregard for the basic categories of establishing the appropriate "context" for interpretation
Once again, I'm not suggesting that Paul is jumping between "myth" and "history". The division you are trying to force upon the author is not germane to the author's intention, nor to his probably worldview and philosophical understanding of the nature of "history".
And you've done nothing to suggest that your understanding of "literality" has any bearing on the actual intentions of the authors of the creation epic.
This is precisely my point!!! It is because they assumptions and biases are so "natural" and "ingrained" in our fundamental worldview that they are such a hindrance to interpretation. If you were being instructed in an alien philosophy that kicks against the pricks of your "default" notion of the world in which you live, the nature of reality, etc., then the biases would be easy to identify and to suspend. However, when we are reared from the first opening of our eyes to "think" in particular ways as inheritors of the philosophy of the modern, western world in which we live, it is incredibly difficult (if not impossible, ultimately) to determine where our biases actually end.
If you actually believe this, then why will you not give the appropriate regard to the actual context in which the Scriptures were written? The "why" is answered because this analysis of the actual context would challenge (and perhaps overthrow) your predetermined notions about what the Scriptures say.
And yet, this is precisely what you are doing. Pot, meet kettle.