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There is only One Gospel

ViaCrucis

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He already did, the only gospel that saves now, is found in 1 Cor 15:1-4. =)

That. Is. The. Gospel. That. Peter. Preached.

Who, exactly, do you think Paul is thinking of when he "For I delivered to you as of first importance what I also received". He means the apostles. The same apostolic preaching and teaching which the apostles were already engaging in, Paul didn't make it up, he preached the same thing that was preached to him.

He was preaching the same word which Peter and the rest of the other apostles had already been preaching.

It's the same Gospel, to Jew and Gentile. It's always been the same Gospel. There is only one Gospel.

If Paul was preaching something other than what the rest of the apostles were preaching, then that would make him a false apostle. But it is precisely that he was preaching the one and only apostolic message that his preaching is faithful and true preaching, and his apostleship is true.

-CryptoLutheran
 
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Guojing

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That. Is. The. Gospel. That. Peter. Preached.

Who, exactly, do you think Paul is thinking of when he "For I delivered to you as of first importance what I also received". He means the apostles. The same apostolic preaching and teaching which the apostles were already engaging in, Paul didn't make it up, he preached the same thing that was preached to him.

He was preaching the same word which Peter and the rest of the other apostles had already been preaching.

It's the same Gospel, to Jew and Gentile. It's always been the same Gospel. There is only one Gospel.

If Paul was preaching something other than what the rest of the apostles were preaching, then that would make him a false apostle. But it is precisely that he was preaching the one and only apostolic message that his preaching is faithful and true preaching, and his apostleship is true.

-CryptoLutheran

Interestingly, you interpreted "what I also received". He means the apostles."

But would you accept the possibility that what Paul actually meant was found in Galatians 1?

11 But I certify you, brethren, that the gospel which was preached of me is not after man.

12 For I neither received it of man, neither was I taught it, but by the revelation of Jesus Christ.

Paul was clear there that he did not receive it of man, nor was he taught it, which would include the apostles, as you confidently claimed above.

I already spelt out for you what Peter did tell Israel in Acts 3:19-21.

Don't let your pre-existing doctrine stop you from understanding the words there.
 
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Guojing

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This is an artificial idea that you are inserting into the text. The text simply says ἐξαλειφθῆναι, "wiped away", it is in the aorist tense, an unqualified past tense without explicit duration; in the passive voice, and the infinitive mood. In other words it is a qualified verb, their sins will be wiped away if they repent; the wiping away of sin is conditional on their repentance.

But it is not just some generic repentance, it is a repentance in connection to faith in Jesus Christ, which is what St. Peter says. Peter points to the future, to Christ's return, their salvation is not conditional on Christ's return; but they are to turn their gaze to the future, in the hope of His return. This is not a hope for Jews only, obviously not, as Scripture routinely points us forward to Christ's return as our hope, for Christ will return, in glory, as judge of the living and the dead, we shall be raised up and transformed, and shall be with Him forever when God makes all things new and He is all in all.

Peter is, quite literally, telling them to repent and believe in Jesus Christ. He is preaching the Gospel, the Good News of Christ's coming, His life, His suffering, His death, His resurrection, and His future return in glory.



Again, this seems to be demonstrative of your relying entirely too much on your subjective opinion about the English words used in the KJV--rather than what the text itself is saying.

-CryptoLutheran

I see you keep refusing to address the may be and the shall. Its not my subjective opinion about the KJV words, it is the literal meaning.

Alright then, I understand why you want to hold on to that.

Have you not realized that Peter say the same thing in his letter 1 Peter?

This view by Peter is reaffirmed by what he wrote to the Jews in 1 Peter 4:17-18

17 For the time is come that judgment must begin at the house of God: and if it first begin at us, what shall the end be of them that obey not the gospel of God?

18 And if the righteous scarcely be saved, where shall the ungodly and the sinner appear?

This is not just from Acts 3:19-21 alone. If what you really claim was true, that Peter meant that their sins are wiped away now, and not in the future, then what Peter repeated in these 2 verses won't make sense.

If their sins are already wiped away, in the aorist tense as your claimed, why should the Jews expect themselves to "scarcely be saved", and expect judgement to begin with them?
 
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RCrihfield

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(You)My answer to that is that both occur: God causes and we choose what he causes.

I read the above statement and first said to myself "yeah...exactly" then on further review thought it was wrong. A third look and something else came to mind. I get your point but I would add that God creates and we react.

(You) Calvinists, (and I), generally say that the context of 2 Peter 3:9 shows that Peter is there referring to the elect, not the whole world, so that God is longsuffering, not willing that any of the elect should perish. There is much more to that, but that is the short version.

A very insightful understanding of that verse as it is probably looking at the salvation of the elect of Israel in Christ who will escape the destruction of Jerusalem. But the point still stands in that context that noone had to die in that war. All Israel was welcome to accept Jesus.

(You) I think Romans 9 is probably the most plain place, though there are many others in Scripture, to see how God indeed does plan for some to be forever lost. See particularly verses 21 and 22, though I would prefer you read the whole passage to follow his reasoning.

I am familiar with the passage. I still see a creation/response relationship. I mentioned in another post recently that God speaks of future events in the past tense sometimes. To Him, it has already happened. That is why He says "I created pharoah so I might show My power" (not really a quote but paraphrase) God hardened pharoah's heart...pharoah hardened his heart....pharoah's heart was hardened. All 3 are used to describe pharoah's reaction to God's command "let My people go"

(You) For what it is worth, and since I don't know if you have read my posts in the past or not, I would also like to point out that logic itself, even aside from Scripture, but also in concert with Scripture, points to the fact that one way or another, directly or indirectly, God causes all things.

Again, I get your point. Probably the best explanation of Calvin I have ever read. I, obviously, have never studied Calvin myself and probably never will. Not that important. Scripture is important.

Still I see God creates, circumstance gives the opportunity and we choose what God knew we would. But to say God caused it is a bridge too far for me. The same gospel is available to all mankind. If accepted it will produce salvation to anyone and everyone. "Whosoever will may come". But the foreknowledge of God says most will reject it.

Rom 9:20 "...why hast thou made me thus?" Is the cry of the lgbtq community is it not?
Why did God make ME with desires I can't control? But I choose my own response.

Is that inconsistent with Calvin?

These posts can be time consuming...I appreciate your effort to explain your point.

You have to expand the quoted text to see all my comments...I don't really know how to use the editor on this site yet...sorry...never mind I solved it.
 
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ViaCrucis

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I see you keep refusing to address the may be and the shall. Its not my subjective opinion about the KJV words, it is the literal meaning.

Apparently I wasn't being clear before.

The text doesn't say "may be". That's not in the text.

-CryptoLutheran
 
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ViaCrucis

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Interestingly, you interpreted "what I also received". He means the apostles."

But would you accept the possibility that what Paul actually meant was found in Galatians 1?

11 But I certify you, brethren, that the gospel which was preached of me is not after man.

12 For I neither received it of man, neither was I taught it, but by the revelation of Jesus Christ.

Paul was clear there that he did not receive it of man, nor was he taught it, which would include the apostles, as you confidently claimed above.

I already spelt out for you what Peter did tell Israel in Acts 3:19-21.

Don't let your pre-existing doctrine stop you from understanding the words there.

Keep reading Galatians, he went to Jerusalem to make sure that what he was teaching wasn't other than what the other apostles had been teaching.

-CryptoLutheran
 
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Guojing

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Keep reading Galatians, he went to Jerusalem to make sure that what he was teaching wasn't other than what the other apostles had been teaching.

-CryptoLutheran

they exchanged notes but nothing in Galatians 2 tell you it’s the same.

On the contrary Paul stated while they add nothing to him, he has much to teach them

and of course the kjv version of vs7 explicitly mentioned 2 gospels

and if all along they are preaching the same gospel, there would have been no need for the Jerusalem council in the first place
 
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Guojing

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Apparently I wasn't being clear before.

The text doesn't say "may be". That's not in the text.

-CryptoLutheran

I quoted the kjv.

Are you claiming to be more aware of the Greek language intricacies than the kjv committee?
 
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ViaCrucis

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I quoted the kjv.

Are you claiming to be more aware of the Greek language intricacies than the kjv committee?

I'm saying that your obsession with the use of "may" is distorting your ability to understand the point of the text. That word doesn't exist in the Greek, instead the Greek uses the word ἐξαλειφθῆναι (exaleiphthenai). Greek isn't English, its grammar is different than English grammar. To translate something from Greek to English means having to take the meaning of the Greek and convey it in English. The KJV translators did that.

But the meaning here is not "oh, if you repent, then you may have your sins wiped away, who can say?" No, the meaning here is that on condition of repentance their sins will be wiped away. That's what the text means, and that's what the KJV translators meant when then rendered it into English the way they did.

You're the one tying yourself in knots making this something that it's not.

-CryptoLutheran
 
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ViaCrucis

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they exchanged notes but nothing in Galatians 2 tell you it’s the same.

On the contrary Paul stated while they add nothing to him, he has much to teach them

and of course the kjv version of vs7 explicitly mentioned 2 gospels

and if all along they are preaching the same gospel, there would have been no need for the Jerusalem council in the first place

Of course the text doesn't mention 2 gospels, it mentions one Gospel. Your obsession with the KJV is again noted, but only noted as being weird and a hindrance to you actually understanding the Scriptures.

-CryptoLutheran
 
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Jesus is YHWH

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Of course the text doesn't mention 2 gospels, it mentions one Gospel. Your obsession with the KJV is again noted, but only noted as being weird and a hindrance to you actually understanding the Scriptures.

-CryptoLutheran
yes which is why I stopped responded to the redundant posts.
 
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Jesus is YHWH

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Jesus came “preaching the gospel of the kingdom” (Matt. 4:23)

“I have gone [among you] preaching the kingdom of God” – Acts 20:25

“We must go through many tribulations to enter the kingdom of God.” – Acts 14:22

“For the kingdom of God is…righteousness and peace and joy in the Holy Spirit.” – Romans 14:17

“For the kingdom of God is not a matter of talk but of power.” – 1 Cor. 4:20

“Paul entered the synagogue and spoke boldly there for three months, arguing persuasively about the kingdom of God.” – Acts 19:8

“He [Paul] witnessed to them from morning till evening, explaining about the kingdom of God, and from the Law of Moses and from the Prophets he tried to persuade them about Jesus.” – Acts 28:23

“He [Paul] proclaimed the kingdom of God and taught about the Lord Jesus Christ—with all boldness and without hindrance!” – Acts 28:31

“Now I [Paul] know that none of you among whom I have gone about preaching the kingdom will ever see me again.” – Acts 29:25
 
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Guojing

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I'm saying that your obsession with the use of "may" is distorting your ability to understand the point of the text. That word doesn't exist in the Greek, instead the Greek uses the word ἐξαλειφθῆναι (exaleiphthenai). Greek isn't English, its grammar is different than English grammar. To translate something from Greek to English means having to take the meaning of the Greek and convey it in English. The KJV translators did that.

But the meaning here is not "oh, if you repent, then you may have your sins wiped away, who can say?" No, the meaning here is that on condition of repentance their sins will be wiped away. That's what the text means, and that's what the KJV translators meant when then rendered it into English the way they did.

You're the one tying yourself in knots making this something that it's not.

-CryptoLutheran

Alright then, if you insist that the KJV translators meant it according to what you want them to mean, instead of the actual meaning of the English word that they picked, there is really nothing anyone can say that will change your mind.

I already said I did not just use Acts 3:19 KJV to form that view. The view was also repeated by Peter in 1 Peter 4:17-18. Why don't you address those and try again to make the KJV words say something other than the literal English meaning of the words they picked?

Should the righteous expect a coming judgment from God?
Should the righteous think they "scarcely be saved"?

Does Peter's words in 1 Peter 4:17-18 agree with what you are claiming Peter was actually saying in Acts 3:19, that "the meaning here is that on condition of repentance their sins will be wiped away"?
 
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Guojing

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Jesus came “preaching the gospel of the kingdom” (Matt. 4:23)

“I have gone [among you] preaching the kingdom of God” – Acts 20:25

“We must go through many tribulations to enter the kingdom of God.” – Acts 14:22

“For the kingdom of God is…righteousness and peace and joy in the Holy Spirit.” – Romans 14:17

“For the kingdom of God is not a matter of talk but of power.” – 1 Cor. 4:20

“Paul entered the synagogue and spoke boldly there for three months, arguing persuasively about the kingdom of God.” – Acts 19:8

“He [Paul] witnessed to them from morning till evening, explaining about the kingdom of God, and from the Law of Moses and from the Prophets he tried to persuade them about Jesus.” – Acts 28:23

“He [Paul] proclaimed the kingdom of God and taught about the Lord Jesus Christ—with all boldness and without hindrance!” – Acts 28:31

“Now I [Paul] know that none of you among whom I have gone about preaching the kingdom will ever see me again.” – Acts 29:25

Now that you mentioned these verses, I am curious about your doctrine though.

In the other thread about Cessationalism, I noted that you are very insistent that signs and wonders have come to an end. But the gospel of the kingdom was about signs and wonders, if you examine Matthew 10:7-8.

So if you insist that Paul was also preaching the gospel of the kingdom, just like Peter did, and that same gospel of the kingdom is to be preached by us today, how do you still hold on to your doctrine on cessationalism?

You understand my puzzle over your doctrine? You cannot hold on to both at the same time, if you are going to insist that Paul was always preaching the same gospel of the kingdom, then signs and wonders must still apply today.
 
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Guojing

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Of course the text doesn't mention 2 gospels, it mentions one Gospel. Your obsession with the KJV is again noted, but only noted as being weird and a hindrance to you actually understanding the Scriptures.

-CryptoLutheran

Galatians 2:7 KJV

7 But contrariwise, when they saw that the gospel of the uncircumcision was committed unto me, as the gospel of the circumcision was unto Peter;

Yep this KJV translation of verse 7 is probably the biggest reason why there are people who reject the KJV.

The English words they used here literally forced people to conclude that there are 2 different gospels.
 
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Jesus is YHWH

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Now that you mentioned these verses, I am curious about your doctrine though.

In the other thread about Cessationalism, I noted that you are very insistent that signs and wonders have come to an end. But the gospel of the kingdom was about signs and wonders, if you examine Matthew 10:7-8.

So if you insist that Paul was also preaching the gospel of the kingdom, just like Peter did, and that same gospel of the kingdom is to be preached by us today, how do you still hold on to your doctrine on cessationalism?

You understand my puzzle over your doctrine? You cannot hold on to both at the same time, if you are going to insist that Paul was always preaching the same gospel of the kingdom, then signs and wonders must still apply today.
signs and wonders always accompanied new revelation from God, that ENDED with the Apostles.
 
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Guojing

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signs and wonders always accompanied new revelation from God, that ENDED with the Apostles.

So if you believe that, do we still preach the same gospel that Paul preached, but without those signs and wonders?

Does that still make it the gospel of the kingdom, even though what Jesus said in Matthew 10:7-8 is no longer true?

You understand the dilemma I am trying to explain with this "having your cake and eating it as well" doctrine of yours?
 
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Mark Quayle

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(You)My answer to that is that both occur: God causes and we choose what he causes.

I read the above statement and first said to myself "yeah...exactly" then on further review thought it was wrong. A third look and something else came to mind. I get your point but I would add that God creates and we react.

(You) Calvinists, (and I), generally say that the context of 2 Peter 3:9 shows that Peter is there referring to the elect, not the whole world, so that God is longsuffering, not willing that any of the elect should perish. There is much more to that, but that is the short version.

A very insightful understanding of that verse as it is probably looking at the salvation of the elect of Israel in Christ who will escape the destruction of Jerusalem. But the point still stands in that context that noone had to die in that war. All Israel was welcome to accept Jesus.

(You) I think Romans 9 is probably the most plain place, though there are many others in Scripture, to see how God indeed does plan for some to be forever lost. See particularly verses 21 and 22, though I would prefer you read the whole passage to follow his reasoning.

I am familiar with the passage. I still see a creation/response relationship. I mentioned in another post recently that God speaks of future events in the past tense sometimes. To Him, it has already happened. That is why He says "I created pharoah so I might show My power" (not really a quote but paraphrase) God hardened pharoah's heart...pharoah hardened his heart....pharoah's heart was hardened. All 3 are used to describe pharoah's reaction to God's command "let My people go"

(You) For what it is worth, and since I don't know if you have read my posts in the past or not, I would also like to point out that logic itself, even aside from Scripture, but also in concert with Scripture, points to the fact that one way or another, directly or indirectly, God causes all things.

Again, I get your point. Probably the best explanation of Calvin I have ever read. I, obviously, have never studied Calvin myself and probably never will. Not that important. Scripture is important.

Still I see God creates, circumstance gives the opportunity and we choose what God knew we would. But to say God caused it is a bridge too far for me. The same gospel is available to all mankind. If accepted it will produce salvation to anyone and everyone. "Whosoever will may come". But the foreknowledge of God says most will reject it.

Rom 9:20 "...why hast thou made me thus?" Is the cry of the lgbtq community is it not?
Why did God make ME with desires I can't control? But I choose my own response.

Is that inconsistent with Calvin?

These posts can be time consuming...I appreciate your effort to explain your point.

You have to expand the quoted text to see all my comments...I don't really know how to use the editor on this site yet...sorry...never mind I solved it.

=====================
*You* I get your point but I would add that God creates and we react.

Agreed. Of course we do; I meant no differently. However, that does not imply that our reaction is uncaused.
==================
*You* All Israel was welcome to accept Jesus.

Agreed, again. Just as all sinners are welcome to repent and accept the Gospel of Christ, which yes, is offered to them. The cold fact, though, is that they cannot, and they cannot because they are slaves to sin; they WILL not, unless God changes their heart: regeneration.
=====================
*You* I still see a creation/response relationship.

Of course. Predestination does not imply otherwise. In fact, that is almost ALWAYS the way God accomplishes what he set out to do. Even in the "moment" of salvation, the willed choice of the new believer to turn to Christ is the work of God.
===================
*You* Still I see God creates, circumstance gives the opportunity and we choose what God knew we would. But to say God caused it is a bridge too far for me.

My Atheist antagonists gleefully yell, "God cannot be both Omnipotent and Omnibenevolent." If they knew the power and goodness of God, they would not quickly try to judge his deeds, but.... they do have a logical point there, which they also put words to: "If God knew ahead that what would happen to (with, by) his creation/creatures/humanity in particular, but he went ahead and created it anyway, then yes, he caused it." This logic is sound, yet the blame for evil cannot be placed at his feet, though they wish to, as if he is the sole causer. We too are causers, but we are also caused. As I have said elsewhere, there is only one First Cause, and that is God. There are no little first causes walking about the earth.

(The Chain of Causality is pervasive. I always smile when I think of the poetic way Atheist cosmologist like to put it when they say, "The 'seeds' of everything precisely as it exists today, were sown in the Big Bang." The logic is sound: Absolutely EVERYTHING is caused, except First Cause. And that being so, First Cause caused EVERYTHING in particular. (Whether one wants to argue as to whether God (First Cause) MEANT to cause every particular thing, is another debate (though intimately related), but I expect you can guess my answer.) I like to say, "Of course God has Foreknowledge -- because he Forecauses!).
======================
*You* The same gospel is available to all mankind.... "Whosoever will may come".

Agreed, but like you said, who is that? --only the Elect will come, and that, not until they are changed.
==================
*You* Rom 9:20 "...why hast thou made me thus?" Is the cry of the lgbtq community is it not? Why did God make ME with desires I can't control? But I choose my own response. Is that inconsistent with Calvin?

Not sure what you are referring to by "that", but if you meant: is it consistent with Calvinism that "I choose my own response" even if God made me "with desires I can't control", I would say yes, if you mean what I do by "choose", haha. Sorry --I had to add that, because many many people claim that if God causes our choices, and causes us to choose, they are not choices at all, and we are but robots. With that I vehemently disagree.
 
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Jesus is YHWH

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So if you believe that, do we still preach the same gospel that Paul preached, but without those signs and wonders?

Does that still make it the gospel of the kingdom, even though what Jesus said in Matthew 10:7-8 is no longer true?

You understand the dilemma I am trying to explain with this "having your cake and eating it as well" doctrine of yours?
the dilemma is all yours not mine as I can reconcile the two. you seem to have a problem with it not me.
 
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Guojing

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the dilemma is all yours not mine as I can reconcile the two. you seem to have a problem with it not me.

My point was that the gospel of the kingdom is always accompanied by signs and wonders, Jesus made that pretty clear in Matthew 10:7-8, and other passages like Matthew 24:14-24.

If one claims to be preaching that now, but lack the signs and wonders, people can legitimately claim that they are not preaching the true gospel of the kingdom.

If you don't see a problem with your doctrine, I am of course fine too. Cheers.
 
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