I want to thank you my friend for your well thought out, researched and articulate posts. Your arguments and statements are clear and filled with well reasoned statements.How precisely does one prove something incorrect when the problem is the lack of proof in favor of it? That's the issue. The point is the lack of evidence for something, to which all I can do is say "the evidence isn't there".
You haven't given any evidence that there was any such gift giving during Christmas at a time concurrent or even short after Saturnalia occurred. As far as I can tell, it only came way, way later.
Now, maybe I'm wrong. Maybe there is some source that demonstrates it closer to time with Saturnalia. But since no one I've ever seen who advances this whole "Christmas gifts come from Saturnalia!" thing has ever offered any evidence of it, the reasonable conclusion is simply that it's because there is no such evidence. I'm open to correction, but until then I see no reason to think there was Christmas gift giving prior to the time when people say it was first recorded.
So what the article claims is:
"In particular, during the first two centuries of Christianity there was strong opposition to recognizing birthdays of martyrs or, for that matter, of Jesus. Numerous Church Fathers offered sarcastic comments about the pagan custom of celebrating birthdays when, in fact, saints and martyrs should be honoured on the days of their martyrdom—their true “birthdays,” from the church’s perspective."
While Britannica is normally a reliable source, here it seems to falter. It doesn't specify who the church fathers in question are that had such an opposition. I've seen people make this sort of claim elsewhere and the person they always point to is Origen, specifically his 8th homily on Leviticus, where he criticizes the celebration of birthdays. The thing is, Origen isn't talking about Christmas. He makes no mention of Jesus's birth or any celebration of it here. He's criticizing people who celebrate their own birth, and the main argument he offers (that humans are sinful so birth is nothing to celebrate) would obviously not apply to Jesus, who is seen in Christianity as sinless. Furthermore, as his focus is on people celebrating their own birthday, which Christmas is not, his criticisms would apply even less.
Also, one has to contrive things to say that Origen is criticizing people from celebrating the birth of saints (as in holy people who have died and were venerated subsequently); he does say "not one from all the saints is found to have celebrated a festive day or a great feast on the day of his birth" but from context it's not clear if he's using saint to refer to people from the Bible, including the Old Testament, or saints that were venerated. I think it's the former given he gives a bunch of biblical examples of what he's talking about, though.
Now, maybe Britannica has someone else in mind I don't know about. But I do know that when I read things by the "Christmas is proof of how Catholicism compromised with paganism and set the church on the wrong path!" crowd, the only person I ever remember seeing them cite as criticizing Christmas is Origen. If there were more they could point to as criticizing Christmas (let alone "numerous" ones), I'd think they'd be citing them... but instead it's always just Origen, who as noted above really didn't say that at all. So this claim from Britannica seems rather dubious.
It would have to be close in time because--and I need to stress this again and again--the practice of giving Christmas presents, again as far as I can tell, only appears long after Saturnalia. If the practice was being "passed down", then why doesn't it show up? Why isn't it mentioned by anyone? Basically, Saturnalia eventually disappears, and we have no mentions at all on Christmas gifts being exchanged during that time or afterwards, a state that continues for centuries. Then after centuries have gone by, the practice occurs on St. Nicholas Day, and then only even later than that on Christmas. In other words, there's apparently no evidence that there was any tradition of giving gifts on Christmas (or even St. Nicholas Day) for centuries after Saturnalia was no longer celebrated. The idea of some kind of transfer after the practice had ceased entirely for centuries just doesn't make sense.
Maybe I'm just not expressing myself well and that's leading to the argument, so I'll try again. As far as I understand it based on multiple sources, the chronology goes like this:
-Saturnalia is celebrated, with gift giving being a part of it (though in different manners than modern Christmas)
-Christmas comes along and is celebrated while Saturnalia celebrations continue. No record of gift giving in Christmas.
-Saturnalia dies off and is no longer celebrated around the sixth century AD. Christmas continues. No record of gift giving in Christmas.
-Centuries go by with no record of gift giving in Christmas.
-Eventually, we do see gift giving occur on St. Nicholas Day, though this is December 6 rather than Christmas. This appears to have started in the 11th/12th century with the practice of giving gifts to the poor, which eventually turned into actually giving gifts to loved ones. No record of gift giving in Christmas.
-Protestant Reformation happens. Protestants like the idea of giving gifts but due to their aversion of veneration of saints want to get rid of the whole "Saint Nicholas Day" part. So they move the date of giving gifts to Christmas (Catholicism in a lot of countries eventually followed suit) and in some cases came up with an entirely new gift giver, like Cristkind.
Now, if this timeline is correct, it means Saturnalia (and its gift giving, if the gift giving was even part of the holiday still at that point) stopped in the sixth century. Then gift giving started in the 11th/12th century for St. Nicholas Day. That's a gap of about 500 years of no gift giving on St. Nicholas Day/Christmas, meaning there was no gift giving tradition on account of the fact that people, well, weren't doing it. So one can't say it's a case of people giving gifts while forgetting why they were doing it, because they WEREN'T doing it. One can't say it was being passed down through generations, because subsequent generations WEREN'T doing it. The tradition died off completely with Saturnalia and people weren't doing it, so any subsequent instances of gift giving wouldn't be traceable to Saturnalia. It's like saying that Thanksgiving (the US holiday) can be traced back to the Epulum Jovis feast on November 13. The Epulum Jovis feast was dead for long enough that having a feast at around the same time so many centuries later is just a coincidence.
Now, I'm open to correction on the above points. Maybe the St. Nicholas day gift giving (which later transitioned to Christmas gift giving) started centuries earlier than what has been stated and therefore a plausible connection to Saturnalia can be found. Or perhaps Saturnalia kept going later and came close enough to the time of gift giving for St. Nicholas Day that it could be a plausible connection. Or maybe both. It's certainly possible, and I'm not some kind of big expert on the topic. But until that fact can be proven by pointing to a historical document demonstrating it as such, the 500 years of separation is too much for any tradition of Saturnalia to manage to make it to St. Nicholas Day (and then subsequently to Christmas).
And that's the problem we run into a lot of these supposed traditions from paganism. There's centuries of time separating their demise in paganism to them showing up (often in a different form entirely) in Christmas celebrations. So a link doesn't seem plausible.
I have never claimed that there is "no possible way previous cultures influenced the modern practice of christmas." I am pretty sure I have stated I never claimed that before. What I have stated is that your claim that "Most of the traditions associated with what we now call "christmas" are rooted in pagan or solstice celebrations" is false (note your original claim does not say anything about "previous cultures" but the more specific claim of "pagan or solstice celebrations" plus you claimed not merely some, but most date back to that). And then when you listed a bunch of supposed examples, I pointed out how they arise too late in Christmas celebrations to have any plausible connection to their pagan counterpart, or they don't seem to have been ever done by the pagans to begin with (or at least, no one has been able to offer evidence they were).
You're, as they say, moving the goalposts. You made a specific claim ("Most of the traditions associated with what we now call "christmas" are rooted in pagan or solstice celebrations"), and now you're making a different claim and demanding I completely disprove a different claim than the one you made, and in doing so trying to shift the burden of proof off yourself and onto me.
The apparent complete lack of there being any documentation of them being done, and the apparent inability of anyone to provide evidence of them being done, during that time period.
The problem is you are arguing with someone who will slip and slide and dodge and weave any logical argument. At some point you will just have to drop the conversation.
Upvote
0