Interplanner
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The 490 years ended in the mid-1st century. If you know the events of the Jewish war, you know the destruction described is pretty close to that (as opposed to what happened to Messiah and the 7 things he accomplished, which would have happened in the Gospel event earlier). There are a few years remaining but it is very close (based on an edict to return being 444 BC).
So when Mt 24 & //s says the AofD would be in the inner part of the temple, or when it warns about the city being surrounded, it is using language from Dan 9 in its time normal frame, in the mid-1st century. Jesus did say, after all, this generation would see all these things happen. While this is true of the Judean catastrophe (the DofJ), it was not true of the world-wide return of Christ, which is the emphasis in Mt 24 after v29. That was expected right after the DofJ, but it was always allowed that it might not happen then, because "only the Father" knows.
Futurist eschatology is continually in conflict with this timestamp because it "needs" things to happen in the future, as you can see from all the charts etc. The question still remains whether such a need is true to what the materials are saying.
I cannot budge past the "allowance" fact. Please send reasons otherwise. If the apostles were going to teach that (and they did, with Peter saying the same in 2 Pet 3), then the DofJ events preceded them. The DofJ is not part of the "allowance." It happened. The return and world judgement is allowed to be unspecific.
So when Mt 24 & //s says the AofD would be in the inner part of the temple, or when it warns about the city being surrounded, it is using language from Dan 9 in its time normal frame, in the mid-1st century. Jesus did say, after all, this generation would see all these things happen. While this is true of the Judean catastrophe (the DofJ), it was not true of the world-wide return of Christ, which is the emphasis in Mt 24 after v29. That was expected right after the DofJ, but it was always allowed that it might not happen then, because "only the Father" knows.
Futurist eschatology is continually in conflict with this timestamp because it "needs" things to happen in the future, as you can see from all the charts etc. The question still remains whether such a need is true to what the materials are saying.
I cannot budge past the "allowance" fact. Please send reasons otherwise. If the apostles were going to teach that (and they did, with Peter saying the same in 2 Pet 3), then the DofJ events preceded them. The DofJ is not part of the "allowance." It happened. The return and world judgement is allowed to be unspecific.
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