No. The apostles clearly state in the decree that they gave no such commandment for Gentile believers to get circumcised and keep the law.
No, the Apostles do not clearly state that in the decree, and that is because the passage is disputed.
Acts 15:24 KJV (Textus Receptus)
24 Forasmuch as we have heard, that certain which went out from us have troubled you with words, subverting your souls, saying, Ye must be circumcised,
and keep the law: to whom we gave no such commandment:
Acts 15:24 ASV (Nestle-Aland)
24 Forasmuch as we have heard that certain who went out from us have troubled you with words, subverting your souls; to whom we gave no commandment;
Why is the statement,
and keep the law, missing from the ASV and other translations? Because it only appears in the Byzantine text types and the Textus Receptus.
We all know in the decree the apostles were not referring to "the commandments (Laws) of men the Pharisees taught for doctrines." That's just your dishonest retort. They were referring to the law, or sometimes referred to as the law of Moses, which are not commandments of men and includes the 7th day Sabbath rest.
No, we don't all know that, and actually the evidence from a deeper study shows that Studyman is much more likely correct.
Acts 15:1 KJV (Textus Receptus)
1 And certain men which came down from Judaea taught the brethren, and said, Except ye be circumcised
after the manner of Moses, ye cannot be saved.
Acts 15:1 YLT (Textus Receptus)
1 And certain having come down from Judea, were teaching the brethren--'If ye be not circumcised
after the custom of Moses, ye are not able to be saved;'
Acts 15:1 ASV (Nestle-Aland)
1 And certain men came down from Judæa and taught the brethren, saying, Except ye be circumcised
after the custom of Moses, ye cannot be saved.
Whether the statement should read
manner or
custom is up to translator opinion because the Greek word used here, (G1485 ethos), means both. However, when used in this type of context, (commandments of/from the Torah), it is more correctly
custom. The reason, and especially here, is because in this context
custom does not mean there was or is a particular custom of Mosheh about how to perform circumcision but, much rather, the custom of the Pharisees regarding the Torah (of Mosheh).
In other words those in the passage, (no doubt Pharisees, though they are not named), were attempting to enforce Pharisee doctrine upon the Gentiles, to observe circumcision according to (
after) the custom of the Pharisees who sat in "Mosheh's seat", which means therefore according to their own interpretation of the Torah regarding circumcision. There actually is no straightforward evidence in the scripture that Mosheh had either a
manner or a
custom for how the circumcision commands were to be carried out/observed.