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The problem of Objective Morality. and why even biblical speaking it is subjective

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Actually, you may be the one rebelling against your creator in that you ignore the fact that it has given us (as opposed to knifes and rocks) the ability to experience, think, feel and create purpose. You may be the one who rejects acting upon the purpose you have been given. (But since we are assuming a flawless designer entity, this is also ok - or else it would have prevented its creation from serving its intended "objective" purpose).
Once again, God gave us the ability to choose because love is a choice. Forced love is not love at all. It's rape. And God is not a divine rapist.
 
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quatona

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It addresses the post by explaining why purpose is required in order to objectively measure the qualities a thing possesses as being good or bad.
Indeed - if humanity doesn´t function well in regards to its purpose it´s bad (i.e. poorly designed). Just like a knife that´s created to cut but doesn´t.
According to a secular worldview, humanity has no purpose.
Not according to mine.
An opinion which determines what you subjectively evaluate as good or evil qualities for yourself and humanity.
Yes, as opposed to a possibly existing subjective purpose invented by a transcendent creator entity.
 
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quatona

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Once again, God gave us the ability to choose because love is a choice.
So, as predicted, you keep pointing out how your own analogy doesn´t apply - neither in your view nor in mine we are comparable to knifes and rocks - we are conscious creator-entities.
 
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quatona

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And God is not a divine rapist.
If he were, he would still be"objectively good and right" - according to your previous post. So you better abstain from modelling him after your subjective moral views.
Love - according to your own line of reasoning - would objectively be whatever God defines as "love", even if it happens to be rape.
 
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If he were, he would still be"objectively good and right" - according to your previous post. So you better abstain from modelling him after your subjective moral views.
Love - according to your own line of reasoning - would objectively be whatever God defines as "love", even if it happens to be rape.
He can't. Forced love is self contradictory like a round square or a married bachelor.
 
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So, as predicted, you keep pointing out how your own analogy doesn´t apply - neither in your view nor in mine we are comparable to knifes and rocks - we are conscious creator-entities.
And again, there are only two option . Either we're like knives because we were created and designed for a specific purpose. Or we're like rocks that are created by nature through natural means and are void of created purpose. If you cannot agree with that then you are wrong and delusional. Was humanity created for a purpose or not?
 
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Ken-1122

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I made no such claim. I stated the obvious fact that rocks were created by nature through natural means and are absent of any intelligent being creating rocks for a specific purpose. According to a secular worldview. Humanity was created by nature through natural means (evolution) absent of any intelligent being creating humanity for a specific purpose. How is this wrong?
Humm…. so where should I start?
*According to the Bible, rocks were created by the same intelligent being as humans. I guess that makes them equal huh?
*According to science, humanity was not created by evolution, evolution is about how that which already exists changes over generations. Science doesn’t claim humanity was created.

But my disagreement with your statement was when you suggested according to the secular view humans and rocks were equal because their origin are the same

Not true. The qualities are subjective to the individual who "takes ownership" of the rock.
If a rock is flat and smooth thus good for skipping, that is an objective quality is it not? If it is heavy thus good for a paperweight, that is an objective quality; it is not? The person taking ownership of the rock subjectively determines the value of the objective quality of the rock.

So what is the purpose of a rock? Skipping or holding paper down? How is this decision anything other than subjective opinion unless you are the one who invented "the rock"? How much is a rock worth and how is it the standard at which its value is measured objective?
I never suggested the value of a rock was anything other than subjective, however it could depend on the rock; if the rock is a diamond……

What if a person is the creation? A creation cannot make the decision as to its purpose. Only its creator can.
Says who? Where is it written that an intelligent creation cannot make the decision as to it’s purpose?

Not entirely true. If a mother tells a child "Thou shalt not touch the hot stove lest ye have your fingers burned.", who is to blame the child's burnt fingers if the child chooses to disobey? God wants you to love and have a relationship with Him. Love is a choice that cannot be forced. Forced love is not love. It's rape. Hell is spending eternity separated with God. I guarantee that God loved every soul that he ever cast into hell. But God is not a divine rapists and loves you too much to force you to spend eternity with Him. If someone is "dammed", God is no more responsible for it as I am responsible for the child's burnt fingers.
I’m talking about freewill here; a mother does not give her son the freewill to touch a hot stove.
 
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Tinker Grey

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He can't. Forced love is self contradictory like a round square or a married bachelor.
Love has no fundamental properties. It is a name we give to a category of behaviors. It is due to a sense of a need for coherent communication that we nearly mean the same thing by the term. I'd venture that no 2 people have an identical set of qualities that define love.

As such, if by love we mean a set of qualities, certainly a god could define a set of qualities that it calls good and demand that you call it love.
 
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quatona

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Great! Then for what purpose did humanity come to exist? Don't worry, I have time.
Obviously, for everything humanity does and can do.

Of course, if you long for humanity having an externally intended purpose, you will have to postulate an external intentional purpose giver.
I see no need for that.
 
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quatona

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And again, there are only two option . Either we're like knives because we were created and designed for a specific purpose.
Or we're like rocks that are created by nature through natural means and are void of created purpose.
We aren´t comparable to neither. We are experiencing, thinking, feeling, creating, purposefully acting entities - unlike knives or rocks.
If you cannot agree with that then you are wrong and delusional.
I´m just not following your irrelevant false dichotomy.
Was humanity created for a purpose or not?
I don´t know. I don´t think so. But more importantly, I don´t care - since if we have been created for a purpose (like a knife, for example), the purpose would be observable in what we do and are capable of.
 
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quatona

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He can't. Forced love is self contradictory like a round square or a married bachelor.
In order to avoid semantic quibbles, let me reword my post: According to your line of reasoning, God could have given creation the purpose "rape", and rape would be the "objective" purpose, as well as "good and right".
At this point you may get an idea why I don´t care much about possibly existing externally given ("objective") purposes.
 
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Eight Foot Manchild

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It definitely does if it goes from single cell organism to human. And even just from Australopithecine to human major changes in morphology must take place.

Nope. Again, the scientific definition of evolution does not 'require' any such thing. Radical divergences (not individuals changing linearly from one into the other) are one of the natural results of evolution over very long periods of time, but that is exactly the same mechanism that produces change within the level of species over short time periods. Both are, definitionally, evolution.

And that is how all such processes work. Think of language. At the small scale, you see small differences with little divergence (Mexican and European Spanish, British and American English, etc). At the large scale, you see big differences with lots of divergence (Romantic languages, Sinic languages, etc).

Same goes for music genres. And art movements. And cultural practices. And so forth. Everyone understands gradualism with regard to anything that changes over time, except, apparently, biology. Only when it comes to biology does the ability to understand it magically disappear.

Hence, creationists.
 
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Ed1wolf

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Ed1wolf said:
No, human nature has not changed since basically our origin, otherwise we would no longer be human. And those morals that I mentioned have not changed in all of human existence.

ken: I disagree. When humans act against their nature, it changes. Example; it used to be human nature to separate ourselves according to race, but years of vilifying the practice has now changed it so race mixing is natural

I do believe that our nature can change but only if God starts changing it but even God cannot change it all at one time. But you are wrong about people in general, no human can change their nature. Have you ever been to a school cafeteria? Even in so-called liberal colleges and high schools, the students generally will eat with people of their same race.

Ed1wolf said:
True, but good morals is. You can have a good morality or a bad morality. If you live by God's morality then you are morally good, otherwise you are not good.

ken: That only applies to those who agree with your God’s morals. If you disagree with his morals, living according to your Gods morals is probably bad
No, the Christian God is the moral standard and judge of the universe, irrespective of whether you believe in Him or not.

Ed1wolf said:
How do you know? There are many cases where children have reported their parents crimes especially adult children. Most humans recognize brutal treatment. There could also be witnesses that are not members of the family. Someone could hear her screaming next door and etc.

ken: Children of today report on their parents because they have been empowered to do so. In that day, children were not empowered that way.
You dont know this, your bias is just making you assume this. Ancient Israel was one of the most morally and politically advanced societies at the time.

ken: If nobody cared of her screaming when she was being dragged from her home, nobody is going to care when she is screaming while being beaten for being a lousy wife

She was taken from her home during the war, his fellow Hebrews would not fault him for taking a POW, that was allowed by God. But if she was screaming during the one month adjustment period when she was not allowed to be treated brutally, then they would have reported him.

Ed1wolf said:
She was not kidnapped, she was a POW in a war against a very evil nation that treated women and children like dirt. Once she saw the much more civilized Hebrews and lived with them she most likely would have eventually become glad she was captured. This happened in Japan during WW II quite often, they were shocked how well the US treated its POWs and came to admire America greatly.
POW’s are taken from the battel field.

ken: These women were dragged from their homes. They had no choice in the matter; that was wrong.
Neither did the Japanese. You have yet to prove anything is wrong without an objective standard.

Ed1wolf said:
Actually devout Muslims DO rape women and unlike the bible, the Koran actually DOES condone it. But as I have shown nowhere in the text does it condone rape, in fact it condemns it, the verse said the man is commanded to NOT treat her brutally. How many times do I have to repeat this to get past your hatred of God and His laws for His ancient people?

ken: Not only is the instance we are discussing rape, but Numbers 32:18 describes rape as well in the Bible. It basically tells them to kill all the women who are not virgins, but the virgins you can keep for yourselves.

Nothing in that verse or even the whole 32nd chapter says anything about rape, it doesn't even mention women.

Ed1wolf said:
Yes feelings are real but you dont always know what is causing them it could be indigestion, hormones, drugs, or etc. and may not have anything to do with morality. So the feeling you are doing the right thing could be just because you ate something bad that day or a hormonal fluctuation.

ken: I know the difference between emotional pain vs physical pain.
No, it is well known that drugs, indigestion, and hormones can make people act very differently and even change their views on many things including morality during the period that they are exposed
to these things.
 
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Ken-1122

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I do believe that our nature can change but only if God starts changing it but even God cannot change it all at one time. But you are wrong about people in general, no human can change their nature.
Give me an example of a human nature that we are incapable of changing.

Have you ever been to a school cafeteria? Even in so-called liberal colleges and high schools, the students generally will eat with people of their same race.
I see people usually sitting with people from their neighborhood (which is often divided among race) but nobody is vilified for sitting next to someone of a different race.

No, the Christian God is the moral standard and judge of the universe, irrespective of whether you believe in Him or not.
So because you say so; that makes it so? Well 2 can play that game; how’s this!
I am the moral standard and judge of the Universe, irrespective of whether you believe it or not.
Sooo….are you convinced yet? (crickets)

You dont know this, your bias is just making you assume this. Ancient Israel was one of the most morally and politically advanced societies at the time.
Are you familiar with all of the societies 2000 years ago? Admit it; your bias is making you assume this.

She was taken from her home during the war, his fellow Hebrews would not fault him for taking a POW, that was allowed by God.
Because somebody said God allowed it??? If his fellow Hebrews had an ounce of integrity, they would have defended the victim, cursed the kidnapper, and cursed anybody claiming God would allow this evil.

Integrity is doing what’s right in regardless of what you are told.
Obedience is doing what you are told regardless of what’s right.
IMO they needed more integrity, and less obedience.

Nothing in that verse or even the whole 32nd chapter says anything about rape, it doesn't even mention women.
Numbers 31:18
But all the women children, that have not known a man by lying with him, keep alive for yourselves.
Numbers 31:18 but spare for yourselves every girl who has never had relations with a man.

No, it is well known that drugs, indigestion, and hormones can make people act very differently and even change their views on many things including morality during the period that they are exposed
to these things.
That’s other people; I’m talking about me. Again; I know the difference between emotional pain and physical pain.
 
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Ed1wolf

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Ed1wolf said:
As I have demonstrated to Ken, with biblical Christian morality it has never once required me to be an apologist for those things either. I have just had to correct shallow and out of context interpretations of the bible by apologists for atheism.
efm: Yeah, I've seen apologists spend a great deal of time and energy trying to reason that Biblical rape isn't really rape, Biblical slavery isn't really slavery, and Biblical genocide isn't really genocide. I find your reasoning thoroughly unconvincing, and I'm glad I've never had to do such a thing.
Well it took me practically no time and energy to refute Ken that in the texts he referenced there was anything about rape. And I have refuted others pretty easily that the Bible does not condone slavery, in fact it was a strong force against slavery in Western societies. And the claim that the Bible condones genocide I have also easily refuted without spending much time and energy.

Ed1wolf said:
And the big difference between secular morality and Christian morality is that secular morality has no objectively rational basis for condemning those things, while Christian morality does.

efm: No it doesn't. Moral decrees do not magically become 'objective' by virtue of having been decreed by a god.
If they arise from the Creator of the universe's objectively existing moral character, then they do have an objective basis which secular morality does not have. God's moral character exists outside the human mind, so therefore it is objective.


efm: Which is to say nothing of the fact that you have no reliable means of gleaning what those decrees are, or that they were made in the first place,
Yes, we have them in propositional form that can in most cases be easily understood when studied in the grammatico-historical context. And there is strong evidence that that written communication has a divine origin.

efm: or even that a god would necessarily have our best interest in mind when making such decrees.
We generally learn this when we get to know Him personally, but there is also scientific evidence that points to following Christian morality is best for humans.

efm: A moral philosophy that is ontologically and epistemologically vacuous, and makes atrocity apologists out of its followers, is one that I dismiss out of hand.
Christian moral philosophy has none of those characteristics.
 
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yeshuaslavejeff

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Well it took me practically no time and energy to refute Ken that in the texts he referenced there was anything about rape. And I have refuted others pretty easily that the Bible does not condone slavery, in fact it was a strong force against slavery in Western societies. And the claim that the Bible condones genocide I have also easily refuted without spending much time and energy.
Well, perhaps 2 out of 3...
 
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Ken-1122

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Well it took me practically no time and energy to refute Ken that in the texts he referenced there was anything about rape. And I have refuted others pretty easily that the Bible does not condone slavery, in fact it was a strong force against slavery in Western societies. And the claim that the Bible condones genocide I have also easily refuted without spending much time and energy.

You haven’t refuted anything; you just refuse to admit the obvious. Numbers 31:17-18 says:

17 Now therefore kill every male among the little ones, and kill every woman that hath known man by lying with him.
18 But all the women children, that have not known a man by lying with him, keep alive for yourselves.

As any reasonable person can see, verse 17 is genocide; verse 18 is kidnapping that leads to rape.
 
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In order to avoid semantic quibbles, let me reword my post: According to your line of reasoning, God could have given creation the purpose "rape", and rape would be the "objective" purpose, as well as "good and right".
At this point you may get an idea why I don´t care much about possibly existing externally given ("objective") purposes.
Well, if God had established that the sole purpose for sex was procreation, rape would then be good because it fulfills and promotes that purpose. However, according to scripture, that is not what the purpose of sex is. Scripture explains that sex is a manifestation of love shared between a husband and wife. Since love is a choice that cannot be forced, rape goes against it's divine purpose. Thus, rape is evil.

Furthermore, when we are talking about an omnipotent, omniscient, omnibenevolent, and omnisovereign God who created all that exists, how is it possible for anything He declares to be anything other than the objective truth? Truth is a reflection of reality. Since God is responsible for and establishes what is reality, whatever He declares or establishes becomes reality and therefore becomes objective truth. Which is why the purposes He bestows upon His creations, to include sex, is objectively true. All this, of course, assumes that the God that you clearly deny actually exists.
 
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