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Every time someone insists something is very basic, I suspect that equates to an assumption or speculation rather than explicit evidence. Is that the case here?
Short suffering, long suffering for 110 years at your request.
I say that short suffering is better.
Yes, all suffering is a direct result of man turning from God.
But that gives us the choice to turn back. That's the downside
of having the option to trust God. Yes, the children suffer from
our decision to sin.
Do you claim to have evidence for the origin of morality from some societies?
Yes, there is historical data to suggest the origin of some aspects of morality. John Locke's Two Treatises of Government and its ubiquitous use throughout the Enlightenment is good evidence for its impact on issues of property. Likewise, Mosaic Law and its ubiquitous use in Israel is good evidence for its impact on Hebrew/Jewish morality.
What is that evidence exactly, as to how they use evidence, that points in one direction as to the origin of morality.
I am asking for evidence that points in one direction, as to the origin of morality.
If the evidence could point in different directions, it isnt really evidence for one specific source.
I'm not sure we could ever prove one specific source. If you look at how I phrased my reply, I said Locke had an impact on the Enlightenment and Biblical morality had an impact on Israel. The Bible itself speaks to the issue of other cultures in the area influencing Israel. I've got a book by Garry Wills that argues the influence of Locke on Jefferson is overrated.
I think western secular morality's basis is pretty fickle and fungible. In the Netherlands doctors now kill sexually abuse people to "end their suffering". That's just the consequences of a worldview steeped in nihilism and moral relativism. The moral of this story of course is that if you are a burden on people, you deserve to die. THAT is the godless world we are headed towards.
And my question was; what was their evidence that this morality, was directly impacted by the bible?
I never claimed the Golden Rule only appears in the Bible.
I asked if all your logic does is confirm Biblical morality.
Logic and reason don't float in space by themselves. They need to confirm a premise. If your premise for morality isn't algebra, then what is it?
Yet in both cases they judged for themselves. So who judged their judgement to be immoral and worthy of confinement?
Your argument. Your responsibility to support it. Just admit you don't have a citation.
Its use. Are you looking for something different? Or are you thinking Mosaic Law hasn't had an impact on Jewish morality?
[edit] Let me clarify. When I said I can't prove one specific source, it might have been better to say I can't prove one sole source. There are always multiple factors at play. That doesn't mean we can't establish what some of those factors are.
I wasn't aware that I had to use a citation to make an argument. I guess you aren't able to address my argument.
Then why did you describe it as biblical, given all of the other places where the Golden Rule can be found?
Just as you judge for yourself that the sum of angles in a triangle add up to 180 degrees. How do people determine that this is correct?
The premises are quite simple. You are able to feel pain, and you don't like it. Using empathy, reason, and logic, you are able to determine if your actions will cause pain in others. The conclusion is simple. You shouldn't do those things that you know will cause pain in others because you don't want those things done to you.
Obviously not. According to descriptions in the Bible, the Amalekites were a group of people that had harassed the Hebrew people for quite some time. God ordered genocide against the Amalekites, including innocent children. That is immoral. Logic would tell you that.
Do all the people who use the bible have the same morality?
The need for a citation depends on the type of argument. If you're going to point to things like science or history, and we disagree, you need a citation. The reason this smells so bad is because whenever I ask you questions about biology, you always have a citation ready at hand. It's one of the reasons I continue to listen to you about biology despite our disagreements. Even in this thread you cited something when I mentioned biology. Then, suddenly, you're making historical claims about the source of western morality but refuse to cite anything to support your claims.
Oh, please. I call it Biblical because its a principle espoused by the Bible.
I didn't ask "how". I asked "who". More avoidance.
I don't think it's quite that simple. Is it really a matter of eliminating pain, or of minimizing it? And minimizing it for each individual? Or for society as a whole? Or just the society you live in?
I expected you would mention this eventually. Is this the example you want to use to test your pain premise?
I am the one making the argument. If you can't address it, just say so.
It is a principle espoused by multiple cultures that are completely independent of the Bible. You are arbitrarily picking the Bible out of many, many possible sources.
It is the example I want to use to test biblical morality. According to you, God could not order an immoral act. Therefore, you would classify the slaughter of children on the orders of God as being moral. Do you stand by this biblical morality or not?
Most are using essentially the same Bible. But no, they don't all exhibit the same morality.
FYI, when you don't answer questions I'm assuming you are assenting to my position. That might be a bad assumption, so you might want to answer.