Those standards have been decided? I must have missed that.
Where was it decided that a deity is incapable of being immoral?
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Those standards have been decided? I must have missed that.
Change from something not being acceptable at one time, to being acceptable later, or vise versa.
You'll have to give me an example where the conditions were the same but the acceptability changed.
Says reality, because once something has existed, it... has existed. It's tautologically true. To argue otherwise is nonsensical.
But by all means, describe the mechanism by which something that existed (suffering) ceases to have existed.
Describe how an omnipotent being can "rectify" any suffering so that it had never occurred, defying all possible realities.
If God consistently did the immoral thing under the same conditions, that would be both immoral and objective.
Where was it decided that a deity is incapable of being immoral?
That 'explanation' opens countless cans of worms. And is absolutely not the behaviour of a benevolent being.
Says your perception of reality. Of course, your perception of reality may be wrong. And, since Biblical theology clearly says God can undo actions, then if the Bible is true then your perception of reality is wrong.
This game, huh? I never said it has been decided. In fact, I'm quite sure you're convinced God is immoral. But either you can demonstrate an objective morality that compels me to agree, or you must concede subjectivity, which leaves you no basis for judging me.
Suppose I say this: the net effect of all the evil in the universe is zero because God ultimately intervenes and sets all the evil in the universe right. So God can permit as much evil as necessary for his own purposes because the net effect of evil will always be zero, no matter how much evil there is.
How is the Bible any less of a perception of reality than anything else? If you say we can't trust our perceptions, then how can we trust them when reading the Bible?
Even more, were the humans who wrote the Bible infallible?
God would be the true perception of reality.
What's written in the Bible is from God,
God would be infallible, so anything divinely inspired by God would be infallible.
That would be immoral. You don't put people through unnecessary pain, even if you right the wrongs later.
According to whom? You? I have to trust your perceptions? Are you infallible?
The problem is that it is human perception that you are using to determine what is divinely inspired. If human perception can't be trusted, then neither can their claims of divine inspiration.
Who said it was unnecessary?
I gave the reason God says he permits evil earlier: he says he permits it because if he intervened to stop it he would destroy the elect.
He waits until the correct moment, and then intervenes to stop it.
As far as your judgment of immorality/morality: how would you know for a fact that something is immoral or moral?
God is infallible so God would have the true perception of reality.
It has nothing to do with human perception and everything to do with God's perception. And that's the point.
If it is purely objective, why would conditions matter?
When do the conditions change enough to make a difference? Determining that, would appear quite subjective.