Absolutely it does. Synthetic a priori knowledge is certainly possible. Kant's ethics might have been atrocious, but his epistemology was quite brilliant.
Logic, built upon presumptions and faulty premises, does not lead to true conclusions. Case in point:
All too simple, unfortunately.
Now you've removed one particular characteristic of God, namely omni-benevolence.
Using your esteemed "reason" I demonstrated that you cannot extrapolate characteristics of the creator from elements of what it has created.
So, I didn't remove "omni-benevolence" from the characteristics of God, but neither did I add it. My point is that your logic is faulty. We cannot understand the nature of the Creator from the creation with any degree of certainty. You are making a positive claim that you can, but you have failed to even begin showing how logically you can do that.
The point you're making here is a straw man.
Actually, though you don't yet realize what I am really saying, it is central to the whole matter. If you cannot definitively prove me wrong on this point, then you cannot employ the same logic to make any positive claims whatsoever about God. This makes the "problem of evil" a non-conversation.
Of everything. That's what omniscience means.
You're conflating things, we were talking about knowledge of the future.
The ontological argument fails but not for the reasons you think it does. Synthetic a priori knowledge is certainly attainable, but this "God proof" mixes up the necessary and sufficient conditions. It's circular reasoning, essentially drawing conclusions about existence of an entity based on its properties, because, again, possible beings existing requires evidence. However, advancing claims of impossible beings requires pure reason alone, because of our invocation of law of non-contradiction in logic. You're getting your epistemologies mixed up.
Rather, I think such an argument shows the limitation of logic on its own merits, because it is not illogical and logic requires the use of language, which has value-laden meanings in which the ontological argument can even begin making sense.
So, what I don't think you even realize, is that the "Problem of Evil" is much of the same. It has a central presumption, which is that non-existence of evil at all times is necessarily better than the degree of evil in which presently exists.
Remove that presumption, and there isn't even an argument. You are inserting meaning into "omni-benevolence" which is biased, and perhaps, deficient to its true meaning.
I am sure you have read Plato's Republic. Weren't there 10 books dedicated to just defining the word "justice?" Are you confident that you have a perfect understanding of what "benevolence" even is then if even Plato could not begin understanding what "justice" was?
So, I see your problem two fold. First, you cannot even prove with certainty that the argument would even be true to begin with (that it is best if no evil ever existed) and second, that the existence of evil can actually give us any idea whatsoever what the nature of the Creator is.
Those are two glaring holes!
And my response, something you completely did not address, was that this elusive purpose of which we might not be privy to makes God a slave to his creation. Why's that? Because if there is indeed a purpose or goal that God wants to achieve, given that he's all-powerful and all-knowing he could both get at this other purpose we don't know of and not have us suffer. Yet he chose this route. You've made God a slave to this unknown and unknowable purpose.
I find this "point" rather awkward and tortured in its own right. Essentially, by your logic, any infinite being working in the space-time continuum at all becomes enslaved in the process. I think our understanding of what is occurring is in some ways "anachronistic" and not outside of time, which the Creator may be (at least as revealed in the Bible anyway). So, our view of what is occurring is from a very narrow vantage point and thereby incomplete.
So, I don't think if God works in time He makes Himself finite as the time itself is finite, because God exists outside of time.
But the problem is believers have arrived at a specific answer regardless of this lack of perfect knowledge. Namely that he's good. Based on what? Faith.
I totally agree with this, I can't prove to you that He is good any more than you can prove to me that He is bad. However, I am not the one making a positive assertion, you are.
Yet heaven is an attendant belief for Christians, no? If heaven is this realm of existence absent of suffering, then the point is not moot because we can compare and contrast.
Not really, because within Christian metaphysics eternal damnation exists side-by-side. The Scripture says, "What if God, although willing to demonstrate His wrath and to make His power known, endured with much patience vessels of wrath prepared for destruction? And He did so to make known the riches of His glory upon vessels of mercy, which He prepared beforehand for glory" (Rom 9:22, 23).
So, in my mind, the depth of riches of God's glory cannot exist without the existence of
deserved wrath on others. Now, I don't mean to derail this conversation into the realm "does anyone deserve mercy/wrath." Deserving is not the point. Rather, the Bible makes a positive claim that something that is greater is not possible without some attendant evil of some sort.
Now, you don't have to agree with this at all, but can you demonstrate that it is totally out-of-hand. Because, if we were to look at the mass historical record, we would actually see good resulting from evil all the time. We learn not to touch hot things by burning our hand once, for example. So, someone from your position would argue that it would be better if hot things would never exist to begin with. But, that's a value-laden presumption. Maybe, it is actually better that the pain exists, and at the same time, the necessary knowledge to avoid the pain also exists.
Also, as Kelly Clarkson has said, "Whatever doesn't kill you makes you stronger." Most people on some level agree with that modern-day proverb. Now, if that proverb is agreeable, it concedes that trials and suffering can serve a greater purpose.
So to me, the ridiculous position is not mine, but actually your pie in the sky one in which the absolute absence of suffering is best when in reality, we have no such examples in which to actually put this to the test and see if it is so great. I think without suffering, the true depths of love and happiness cannot be experienced.
You don't see it because you don't want to.
Maybe I'm just stupid, that's always possible.
You said God "might" have a plan in which suffering is necessary. It doesn't have to be necessary if God is omnipotent.
I would agree with this. It might not be necessary at all. But, because I am not omniscient nor have perfect knowledge of the future, I cannot definitively answer that question for you.
You're also saying it is impossible to make moral assessments because of our limited knowledge.
Be careful to follow my logic: Unless it can be demonstrated that the absence of suffering is preferable at all times to the existence of suffering at some points, then without perfect knowledge of the future we cannot determine that there exists needless suffering that would not serve some constructive purpose.