The Problem of Evil

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abacabb3

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My example was based on a real early watch design that was made hundreds of years ago in Europe. Automated process cannot be assumed, and you can actually look at metal objects and tell how they are made.

What you have failed to show that we can actually know the nature of the watcher's creator or inventor by the watch. In fact, you know nothing about the man, aside from the fact he was perhaps ambitious or a dreamer. Keyword "perhaps."


It is very simply really. Show me anything where I can know by looking at it something accurate about the nature of its maker. Still waiting...
 
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poolerboy0077

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As am I...

What's the "incorrect" premise? By the way, no one needs to give you an example because we are dealing with a special case here. No human's creation is completely 100% their responsibility the way it would be for someone who is both omniscient and omnipotent. Which leads us to your next comment...
The premise of Epicurus' whole argument is that some created gives us good enough knowledge as to ascertain the nature of the creator with some degree of certainty.

You have not demonstrated this.

But, you respond "we have a special case." Based upon what? God's perfect foreknowledge you say. You assert that makes God totally responsible.

I will concede you that, even though I don't have to, because you are yet to pose evidence. So, I reiterate: based upon what foreknowledge of the future of your own do you know that what we have now does not serve a greater purpose?

You cannot prove that because you don't have perfect foreknowledge.

Further, based upon what evidence can you show that we have an anthropocentric universe in which if something is evil to people, that this shows a deficiency in the purposes of this god you speculate about.

Lastly, I return to the beginning. How do you even know God is a special case? We don't have any indication that created things reflect characteristics of their creators. So, without any example of that, it seems to me pure speculation and absolutely baseless.
You keep coming back to your tired, stubborn response that I or others here need to provide you with evidence. We do not.

Why not? Because as my last response indicated, I can do so through pure reason. And no, not having perfect knowledge is not a limitation for me to do this.

Bachelors are by definition unmarried. If you were to ask me to provide you with evidence for this you would be asking an irrelevancy. I don't need to go out into the world interviewing or investigating all bachelors in the world. Nor would I have to have knowledge of all bachelors (i.e., omniscience) because I can merely use pure reason (rationalism) to arrive at the conclusion that bachelors are unmarried. Mathematicians call this Proof by Contradiction. If we assume that God exists (which I have here, since in reality I don't believe in one but merely doing so purely for the sake of this discussion) and that he has certain characteristics (omniscience, omnipotence, omni-benevolence) and that this world has suffering of a scope and scale that would embarrass the most ambitious psychopath, and even assume this ridiculous idea that there is a dichotomy of heaven and hell which are eternal and of which mere non-belief can land you to the latter, these suffice for me to use pure reason to infer specific points and problems. I'm using what's on the table and the rules of reason. There's no need for empiricism.


You're also pointing out a premise that I've never made. I didn't say created things imply qualities of their creator. I said that given that we've assumed the creator has certain characteristics that these characteristics are incompatible with the other assumptions as well as facts of this world that we've accepted for this discussion. So when you ask, "How do you even know God is a special case?" the question expresses pure confusion on your part because that is what we've assumed to begin with: that he has special characteristics no one else has (omniscience, omnipotence, omni-benevolence). This is why classically theologians, who have actually recognized that this is indeed a problem (for believers), have to modify their conception of God and take away certain qualities, like saying that he isn't fully powerful, etc.



So I was correct when I said in my last response that this was going to be one of those banal "God is mysterious/who can understand God's will" cop-outs.
Never said nor argued that
You just said because we do not have perfect knowledge that we don't understand all of God's will and therefore this is a limitation that diffuses the problem. As I said earlier, this expresses pure confusion on your part. I also do not have perfect knowledge of all bachelors. Nor do I need to have it in order to draw specific conclusions.



Well, a few things. If God is truly in total control, in other words is omniscient and omnipotent, then he doesn't need to create us and subsequently have us experience misery.
No, your god doesn't need to care, nor is there any evidence THAT IF MAN DOES NOT SUFFER THAT THIS SOMEHOW DOES NOT SERVE SOME GREATER PURPOSE FOR SOMEONE OR SOMETHING GREATER THAN MAN. (Sorry about the caps, don't feel like retyping it).
You type in call caps because you do not understand what my specific objections have been. God indeed needs to care if we are assuming omni-benevolence. Already you are making my point. Again, in assuming any of these absolute characteristics all we need to show is other phenomena that contradict it. The existence of suffering in the world is enough to show this because if indeed you are correct that there is knowledge we are not privy to based on our limited knowledge, that God has an ulterior motive or some goal in mind of which suffering was the mere byproduct thereof, you are conceding (albeit, unbeknownst to you) that he is not omnipotent. If here were omnipotent he could create a state of affairs in which he gets at whatever goal we don't know about without our existence. He doesn't need to create us and our attendant suffering because saying so makes him a slave to his creation and thus is not omnipotent.



So wanting questions from an assumed creator is now hubris?!
No, it is hubris to think that how man relates to the universe is the primary way of judging whether a deity is evil. I just don't see how our feelings are anymore consequential than a lemming's.
Not that it's the primary way, it's the only way we have! After all, you're drawing hardline conclusions yourself without having perfect knowledge either. We need not have perfect knowledge to use the rules of logic such as the Law of Non-contradiction and subsequently Proof by Contradiction (as in proof of its converse) to show the clumsiness by believers of cobbling together these assumptions.
 
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abacabb3

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You keep coming back to your tired, stubborn response that I or others here need to provide you with evidence. We do not.

You are the one making the assertion, the burden on proof is on you, not me. I am telling you that the assertion doesn't even make sense. So, you have to show that the assertion actually holds water.

Why not? Because as my last response indicated, I can do so through pure reason.

Pure reason without evidence does not prove anything.

But, here's why pure reason I think you need to address my point:

- Bakers are creators
- Cakes are creations

- Bakers make cakes.
- Cakes are made with flour, salt, sugar, and baking soda.

- A god is a creator
- A god's creation is made with matter, energy, good, evil

- Bakers are not necessarily in essence flour, salt, sugar, and baking soda
- A god is not necessarily in essence matter, energy, good nor evil

Enjoy the unadulterated, simplistic reason.

And no, not having perfect knowledge is not a limitation for me to do this.

Perfect knowledge of what?

Bachelors are by definition unmarried. If you were to ask me to provide you with evidence for this you would be asking an irrelevancy.

God by definition is the greatest of all possible beings. God would not be the greatest of all possible beings if He didn't exist. Therefore, God exists.

Ontology does not prove existence, unless you want to say the preceding is true.

You just said because we do not have perfect knowledge that we don't understand all of God's will and therefore this is a limitation that diffuses the problem.
No, in fact you are confused. I said without perfect knowledge of the future, we are unable to make moral judgments about God in the present, because we don't know where all of this evil is heading. It might have a purpose.

Now, it might not, or the purpose might be malevolent. But, without perfect knowledge of the future, it is impossible for anyone to discern.

God indeed needs to care if we are assuming omni-benevolence...The existence of suffering in the world is enough to show this ... if God has an ulterior motive or some goal in mind of which suffering was the mere byproduct thereof, you are conceding (albeit, unbeknownst to you) that he is not omnipotent.

Do you really believe this? The logic is simple. If the world is better with suffering than without it, than your point is moot. And, without perfect knowledge of the future, you cannot ascertain with certainty the purpose behind present suffering.

He doesn't need to create us and our attendant suffering because saying so makes him a slave to his creation and thus is not omnipotent.
No, He does not necessarily, but maybe He wants to. I don't see the contradiction here.

After all, you're drawing hardline conclusions yourself without having perfect knowledge either.

Actually, I'm not, I'm making no positive claims about God's nature here. You are.

Proof by Contradiction (as in proof of its converse) to show the clumsiness by believers of cobbling together these assumptions.

All I see are my detractors doing is making assumptions. I am humbly asking someone to present me positive proof that something created reflects the character of the creator.
 
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Chany

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I admit, this is probably the first time in a while where I actually did not have a response prepared within the first few minutes of reading a post. Most of the time, the responses given to the problem of evil are the same rehashed ones over and over again. You are philosophically-versed on the issue, and gave a decent, original response. I actually had to think of a decent response and go through the logic behind my position, something I had not done so in a long time. I’m smarter now, and I thank you for it.

However, I stand by my position.

The statement of “the creation gives perfect knowledge of the creator” is a strawman. I never claimed that. I claimed that a creation gives us some knowledge of the creator. However.

There are two possible things that can be drawn from an object: the creator has the ability to create the creation and, possibly, the intention of the creator. The first point is obvious, and I do not feel the need to explain it.

The second point is less obvious, but still there. Take, for instance, a gun. When someone created a gun, they are aware of its possible purposes. A gun has a finite number of uses (shooting targets, shooting animals, shooting people, intimidation, etc). The design of the gun indicates its purpose. For example, an overly decorated gun so it logically follows that the creator made it to be flashy and prioritized looks over utility.

However, what if the creator did not have this intention in mind? Perhaps the creator of the flashy gun thought that the decorations gave the gun power, and were, therefore, necessary in the guns design, which I’ll grant. However, we can still draw a conclusion for this. Either the gunsmith lacked knowledge about reality and proper gunsmithing and honestly thought he was making a practical gun, or he knew what he was doing and created a flashy gun knowing it was really practical.

This brings me to poolerboy’s point of God being a special case; if a being is omnipotent and omniscient, then there is no barrier in between the creator’s intention and what the creation exhibits. The creator knows everything, so it can predict everything and know everything that must happen in order for its intentions to come into reality. Moreover, the creator has the ability to do anything, so it has the power to make whatever it desires into reality.

Moreover, as I was trying to get at with an earlier post, it is not only how a being creates something, but how it interacts with its creation. What’s especially of note is what it, evil, and what is not done, the deity saving us from evil in every instance.

Omni-traits are yes and no cases. There is no middle ground. You are either all-powerful or you are not. You are either all-knowing or you’re not. So on and so forth.

With this in mind, I bring in the possibilities for an existent being. I was going to include sentience and consciousness, but consciousness is necessary for a thoughtful being; a lack of consciousness would reduce “God” to a force or energy, hardly divine. And as sentience, being self-aware, requires awareness in general first, anything that lacks consciousness is, therefore, lacking sentience.

P-All-powerful/omnipotent
L-All-loving/omnibenevolent
KAll-knowing/omniscient
.-and
,-not

Possibilities of God traits, in regard to P,L, and K:

1. P,L,K
2. P,L,~K
3. P,~L,K
4. P,~L,~K
5. ~P,L,K
6. ~P,L,~K
7. ~P,~L,K
8. ~P,~L,~K (not a god and possibly not existent)

Unless you want to prove Epicurus and us true, you don’t want anything with ~P or ~L, as you would admit God is not all-powerful and/or all-loving. 3,4,5,6,7, and 8 are, therefore, out. They would fall into the problem of evil’s riddle.

We are left with 1.P,L,K and 2.P,L,~K. I could stop and eliminate 2 because omniscient is usually considered a trait of the Christian cod, or any monotheistic god I’ve come across. However, let’s assume you would go with 2. What reason would you? I don’t see how we could survive if the being was a complete idiot and had the intelligence of a small child. If the being was not omniscient, but merely extremely smart, we would still have to face the same problem in Epicurus’ challenge, as it could fix things immediately when it figured out how. Even if the being was of average human intelligence (which doesn’t make sense because the world could not function if it was made by a human), why won’t it help us.

That’s an aside, however; I don’t think it is necessary.

Therefore, we’re at the same point of 1 or nothing.

I’m going with nothing, as I don’t understand why there is evil. I can find no reason why evil exists and why the being would not tell us the reason if it cares for us so much.

If you’re going with 1, I present this challenge:

Name one reason evil should exist that an omnipotent and omniscient being could not achieve through some other means?
 
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abacabb3

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I admit, this is probably the first time in a while where I actually did not have a response prepared within the first few minutes of reading a post. Most of the time, the responses given to the problem of evil are the same rehashed ones over and over again. You are philosophically-versed on the issue, and gave a decent, original response. I actually had to think of a decent response and go through the logic behind my position, something I had not done so in a long time. I’m smarter now, and I thank you for it.

However, I stand by my position.

I appreciate this response, and give me some time to go through your response, as I might not be able to get right back to it right away.

I'm a former agnostic, so in some ways that helps me understand the worldview of those I am debating against here.

That aside, even as an agnostic, I was not wedded to Epicurus' argument. I saw it as flawed back in my Philosophy 101 class and that has not changed today. So, I never saw the existence of evil as a convincing argument against God's existence. Even if it can be proved that the deity is evil, what does that really change? Not much. Further, it presupposes that evil is something tangible and real, and that our understanding of it is perfect, which I was always skeptical of anyway.
 
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PsychoSarah

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In God's eyes Sin is sin, whether you tell a lie or murder fifty people. The flesh would say lying is not as bad as murder. And those who would agree that lying is not as bad as murder, have never been touched by the saving grace of Christ.

And I would say that anyone who judges a lie to be equally bad to a murder isn't being realistic.
 
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abacabb3

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And I would say that anyone who judges a lie to be equally bad to a murder isn't being realistic.

It is not the degree or the amount of sins, but rather the nature of who is wronged. Punching the President in the face carriers a larger penalty than punching me in the face. So, the logic goes, a small sin against an infinite God carries the weight of infinite condemnation.
 
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PsychoSarah

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It is not the degree or the amount of sins, but rather the nature of who is wronged. Punching the President in the face carriers a larger penalty than punching me in the face. So, the logic goes, a small sin against an infinite God carries the weight of infinite condemnation.

-_- pretty sure that even to god a murder would be worse than a lie.
 
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ToddNotTodd

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I appreciate this response, and give me some time to go through your response, as I might not be able to get right back to it right away.

I'm a former agnostic, so in some ways that helps me understand the worldview of those I am debating against here.

That aside, even as an agnostic, I was not wedded to Epicurus' argument. I saw it as flawed back in my Philosophy 101 class and that has not changed today. So, I never saw the existence of evil as a convincing argument against God's existence. Even if it can be proved that the deity is evil, what does that really change? Not much. Further, it presupposes that evil is something tangible and real, and that our understanding of it is perfect, which I was always skeptical of anyway.

Epicurus wasn't arguing against the existence of gods, since he believed in the gods. And I've not heard anyone use his words as an argument against the existence of gods in general, but against a particular type of god.

I agree that "evil" isn't tangible and real. But suffering is, and so I use that term instead of "evil". And it's not necessary to have a "perfect" understanding of suffering (if that's even a coherent idea) in order for the problem to be... a problem.
 
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abacabb3

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Epicurus wasn't arguing against the existence of gods, since he believed in the gods. And I've not heard anyone use his words as an argument against the existence of gods in general, but against a particular type of god.

Yes, but it is not employed to defend polytheism, so the logic is what I am speaking to.

I agree that "evil" isn't tangible and real. But suffering is, and so I use that term instead of "evil". And it's not necessary to have a "perfect" understanding of suffering (if that's even a coherent idea) in order for the problem to be... a problem.

The existence of suffering in creation does not help you understand the nature of the Creator any more the existence of baking soda in a cake reflects the nature of a baker.
 
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abacabb3

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The statement of “the creation gives perfect knowledge of the creator” is a strawman. I never claimed that. I claimed that a creation gives us some knowledge of the creator.

You misportrayed my contention. I am arguing that a creator does not give absolute knowledge of its creator.

So, while a cake may tell us that a baker makes cakes, the existence of evil likewise tells us that God certainly permits it (the allegory breaks down where I cannot say God Himself is behind all evil, because we have actual examples of created things creating their own evil.) You can even argue, though not 100 percent convincingly, that God makes evil (that is not my position.)

Even if that were the case, the fact alone does not give us a full view of the nature of the creator in that example. We don't know why it is done or what future purpose it serves, anymore than by looking at the cake do I know anything about the man who made the cake, or his attitude as he was putting the ingredients together.

So, making evil does not necessarily make the creator theoretically evil.

However, while it is more accurate to say a baker combines ingredients to make a cake, it is obvious that God combines ingredients per se to make creation. Evil is not the only ingredient any more than salt is the only ingredient in a cake.

Now, if I focused in only on the gross ingredients of the cake, it would be too easy to say the baker must have on purpose made a horrible cake. However, when we see the cake in its fullness, that conclusion is not permitted.

I would say the same logic applies to the existence of evil.

The most evil event ever was, at least to Christians, the murder of the most righteous man ever (Jesus Christ) and that He was killed so horrible people (those in sin) can be made righteous. It was incredibly and unfair that a righteous man was made to suffer for those who are evil.

But, Christians don't hide this part of the story. In fact, the Bible speaks of God enlisting deceptive spirits, allowing Satan to cause Job to suffer, and God Himself is says, "The One forming light and creating darkness, Causing well-being and creating calamity; I am the Lord who does all these" (Is 45:7).

To me, the argument should be whether the God Christians believe in is "benevolent" by the definition people think omni-benevolence really is. This to me is a separate debate. Because, the existence of evil does not throw my worldview into contradiction at all. It might if I thought God ought to be Santa Claus.

There are two possible things that can be drawn from an object: the creator has the ability to create the creation and, possibly, the intention of the creator.
The former yes, the latter not with any degree of certainty. If you can show a fair degree of certainty I can concede this point, but I simply cannot based purely upon the assertion that it is so, because I do not know of any examples of created things that can tell me the nature of their creator.

The second point is less obvious, but still there. Take, for instance, a gun. When someone created a gun, they are aware of its possible purposes...Perhaps the creator of the flashy gun thought that the decorations gave the gun power, and were, therefore, necessary in the guns design, which I’ll grant. However, we can still draw a conclusion for this. Either the gunsmith lacked knowledge about reality and proper gunsmithing and honestly thought he was making a practical gun, or he knew what he was doing and created a flashy gun knowing it was really practical.

I do not see a point being proved here, maybe I'm missing it.

This brings me to poolerboy’s point of God being a special case..

Once something becomes a "special case," that's a cute way of saying the normal ways of determining truth such as discerning from the mass historical record of all other things in existence does not apply. So, I hope you don't mind, that any reasonable person should approach such an argument very critically and with a lesser degree of certainty. But okay, let's go.

if a being is omnipotent and omniscient, then there is no barrier in between the creator’s intention and what the creation exhibits.

Based upon what? That would require perfect knowledge of intentionality and perfect knowledge of the future, which we don't have. In fact, all we have to go by is "I think it would be better that bad stuff never happens."

However, we have clear examples where we know that bad stuff leads to good stuff. So, without perfect knowledge of the future, we would never be able to declare with absolute confidence that all bad things ultimately serve some sort of good purpose.

Again, what is even "good" anyhow? Who discerns this? Does he have perfect knowledge of what is good and what is not?


Remember what I said about approaching "special cases" very critically? Already, we are running into make problems such as bad presumptions (bad things never lead to better things) and the blind assertion that omniscience and omnipotence makes all intentionality perfectly predictable. Well, does it? That has not been proven.

Omni-traits are yes and no cases. There is no middle ground. You are either all-powerful or you are not. You are either all-knowing or you’re not. So on and so forth.

You are either "all-loving" or you're not, right? What is "loving"? What is "all loving"? Are you 100% sure that the full capacity of love exists when evil does not exists?

We need to be very critical, again, we are talking about a special case. We have to be very careful about how we reach conclusions.

Oftentimes, the true depths of love are not explored until there is a measure of forgiveness or mercy. The true depths of love in my own marriage have been explored in reaching situations where forgiveness became necessary. So, on a very practical level, I need evidence to dissuade me on this point, because it runs contrary to actual experience.

Because we are talking about a "special case" the need for evidence for your position is very high.

P-All-powerful/omnipotent
L-All-loving/omnibenevolent
KAll-knowing/omniscient
.-and
,-not

Possibilities of God traits, in regard to P,L, and K:

1. P,L,K
2. P,L,~K
3. P,~L,K
4. P,~L,~K
5. ~P,L,K
6. ~P,L,~K
7. ~P,~L,K
8. ~P,~L,~K (not a god and possibly not existent)

Unless you want to prove Epicurus and us true, you don’t want anything with ~P or ~L, as you would admit God is not all-powerful and/or all-loving. 3,4,5,6,7, and 8 are, therefore, out. They would fall into the problem of evil’s riddle.

Two issues. First, as we discussed, your view of omni-benevolence may be flawed. Second, your ability to extrapolate whether or not GOd is benevolent to begin with by looking at the degree of evil in existence, is something else you have not proved you can do either.

Again, we are talking about a "special case." We need to address these things and answer them definitively. Otherwise, we are better off not making any positive assertions pertaining to God's possible nature.

I’m going with nothing, as I don’t understand why there is evil. I can find no reason why evil exists and why the being would not tell us the reason if it cares for us so much.

Personally, though I cannot prove it to you, my opinion is that evil exists because GOd finds it necessary to fulfill some sort of purpose.

The Lord works out everything to its proper end—
even the wicked for a day of disaster. (Prov 16:4)

Again, quoting Scripture does not really prove anything to you, but all I can say is that I cannot substantiate my positive claim and I admit it. However, the burden of proof is on your position because you make a positive claim but don't have the evidence to back it up.

Name one reason evil should exist that an omnipotent and omniscient being could not achieve through some other means?
As I said previously, the existence of mercy. If this were part of God's nature, if this part of His nature was never utilized, then God's creation would be incomplete in some way.

Thanks for reading my responses.
 
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abacabb3

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Never said it did, although to punish both in the same way to the same extent is excessive.

Not necessarily. If we agree upon the premise that the punishment for something in terms of degree should be proportionate to who was wronged, then if who was wronged is infinitely times greater than anyone else who can be wronged, then the punishment theoretically should be infinite so there can be justice.


Again, I am not saying I necessarily believe this, but the logic is sound.
 
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PsychoSarah

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Not necessarily. If we agree upon the premise that the punishment for something in terms of degree should be proportionate to who was wronged, then if who was wronged is infinitely times greater than anyone else who can be wronged, then the punishment theoretically should be infinite so there can be justice.


Again, I am not saying I necessarily believe this, but the logic is sound.

With god as the judge, is it really fair for it to judge crimes committed against itself? It isn't a neutral party in such cases.
 
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abacabb3

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With god as the judge, is it really fair for it to judge crimes committed against itself? It isn't a neutral party in such cases.

BTW, Job asked the same question.

But no, that's a bad assumption. You are presupposing a modern view of justice. Unless you can prove that a pluralistic government is preferable to autocracy, you cannot make that claim.

Further, if the infinite judge was infinitely knowledgeable about justice, there wouldn't be a more able judge, even if He was the one violated.
 
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PsychoSarah

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BTW, Job asked the same question.

But no, that's a bad assumption. You are presupposing a modern view of justice. Unless you can prove that a pluralistic government is preferable to autocracy, you cannot make that claim.

Further, if the infinite judge was infinitely knowledgeable about justice, there wouldn't be a more able judge, even if He was the one violated.

I don't really see a solution to the problem when I see the problem :(
 
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