SaintJoeNow
Junior Member
I don't think anyone ever doubted that God had His correct word all along. So I have not disagreed with that at all.
I have doubted that God's word is perfectly expressed in the KJV. And I think it is certainly stretching the meaning of the word "preserved" if you are saying no one had it until 1611
So by saying does God count as anyone, are you saying no humans had it from the time the autographs were lost until 1611?
I believe His word is perfectly preserved without error and given to me by Him.
You don't.
Right?
Simple. Is it really that big of a deal?
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