The latter Days: The type of the latter days

Zao is life

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1.) What is the antecedent to “these things” in Matthew 24:3?

2.) did the apostles generation experience wars, famine, pestilence, earthquakes, false prophets, persecution, the gospel going to the whole oikoumene, the coming of the son of man on the clouds, the days of vengeance to fulfill all that is written, and the gathering of the good and bad into the wedding hall?



Well it’s already pretty clear that you don’t read my posts, as I already stated that I believe the kingdom came with Christ. So I have no idea what you are talking about here. When you can’t address an argument do you just make something up as a response?

The kingdom was at hand (mark 1:15)

The kingdom of God came upon the Israelites (matthew 12:28)

The kingdom would not appear immediately (luke 19:11)

The kingdom would not come with observable signs (luke 17:20)

The kingdom would come with power before the disciples tasted death (mark 9:1)

The kingdom would be near at the destruction of Jerusalem (Luke 21:32)



In Galilean wedding traditions, the son and bride new the general frame, just not the exact the day. So to use the phrase “no one knows the day nor hour” to mean not even the general time frame is completely false, especially since Jesus said “this generation will not pass away till….”



Another strawman argument. Never said any of this. Why do you continue to make things up?

I said the man of sin’s revealing was being restrained in the first century and that the Thessalonians knew the identity of the restrainer. I said the mystery of lawlessness was already at work. And i said Paul used the present tense verb “is” when describing the man of sins presence as being “is” by the power of Satan.

You’ve addresses none of what I actually said and made up something i never said.



Absolutely agree, Hebrews 9:26
confirms this in even clearer language.



Ok, no disagreement here



Lol another strawman argument. I never mentioned Ephesians 1 in any of my posts. in fact agree with you that Christ appeared at the end of the ages to die on the cross as clearly stated by Hebrews 9:26.


I don’t understand why you need to continue to make things up instead of actually addressing what I posted?


Another subjective, generic argument that could be said of you……I was hoping for a fruitful discussion……but you seem unable to actually address the things i wrote…..
It's you who does not address the things that show how your gospel of the kingdom of destruction of the temple in Jerusalem is no gospel at all. That's why there is no point in going further. You avoid basic Christian apostolic doctrine and repeatedly claim that something other than what is meant by what is written is the case.

Since you do not believe the foundational apostolic doctrinal truth that the Kingdom of God is the Kingdom of Christ, and the Kingdom of Heaven is the Kingdom of God, which is brought about by God through the death and resurrection of His Son, and if you deny that the end of the ages occurred when Jesus died on the cross and rose again (Hebrews 9:24-28), there is no point in engaging with you any further on this.
 
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DavidPT

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1.) What is the antecedent to “these things” in Matthew 24:3?



Matthew 24:1 And Jesus went out, and departed from the temple: and his disciples came to him for to shew him the buildings of the temple.
2 And Jesus said unto them, See ye not all these things? verily I say unto you, There shall not be left here one stone upon another, that shall not be thrown down.

At this point in the Discourse, the focus is on what verse 1 is pertaining to.

Which then leads to this.

Matthew 24:3 And as he sat upon the mount of Olives, the disciples came unto him privately, saying, Tell us, when shall these things be? and what shall be the sign of thy coming, and of the end of the world?


The first question asked, when shall these things be? At this point it appears to center around what Jesus said in verse 2. But that is not the only thing they asked. They also asked--- and what shall be the sign of thy coming, and of the end of the world?

Jesus then proceeds to answer them. Note what He starts off with.

Matthew 24:4 And Jesus answered and said unto them, Take heed that no man deceive you.
5 For many shall come in my name, saying, I am Christ; and shall deceive many.


Let's stop here for now. What would be the connection with this and what is recorded in verse 1 and 2? What does verse 4 and 5 have to do with what happened to the city and the temple in 70 AD? Even if verse 5 is already being fulfilled prior to 70 AD, is one then going to argue that it is no longer being fulfilled after 70 AD? And the same for verses 6 through 12, that even if some of that was already happening before 70 AD, is one going to argue that none of it also happening after 70 AD? How then can 70 AD be as far as the Discourse is seeing? Why would Jesus predict events that might involve both before 70 AD and after 70 AD, if all the Discourse is seeing are events up unto 70 AD?

If one argues, that prior to 70 AD verse 5 was already being fulfilled, thus this proves that the Discourse is only focusing on events leading up to 70 AD and 70 AD itself---but what kind of argument is that when verse 5 equally applies to after 70 AD? It would be a valid argument if verse 5 can only apply up unto 70 AD and that it can't also apply after 70 AD. Do Preterists even believe that, though? That verse 5 can only apply up unto 70 AD and not after 70 AD as well?
 
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The Righterzpen

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I've never heard of Herod defiling the temple and banning Jewish religious worship, so no.
Take the question out of the context of Jewish beliefs about the OT and put it into the context of the Messiah has come.

Herod the Great "defiling the temple" = He tried to kill Christ.
He tried to "ban the worship" of the Messiah.

If Herod and the religious leaders had done what they should have done. They would have declared the birth of the Messiah and stopped the animal sacrifices because "that which is perfect" had come.

They didn't do that though. They conducted their own agenda:
1. To maintain political power.
2. And to play the cards Satan had given them in Satan's attempt to thwart the redemption plan.

In the end though; they ended up fulfilling it; just as Scripture declared they would.
but I'm not convinced of that or any other view, so I find what you say about the Herods very interesting. I've often wondered if they may be Judean instead of Gentile kings.
And YES! And consider Revelation. "Babylon the mother of harlots" are the people who killed their own prophets.

Keep in mind the Jewish leaders; (who KNEW Jesus was the Messiah. We know this because of what Nicodemus said to Jesus. "We know you come from God....".) brought the one they knew was their Messiah to a gentile leader to be executed.

Interestingly, think about this from a psychological standpoint of "We are God's chosen people." (who kill the Messiah that You sent us). But it wasn't really us that did it. It was the Romans! (Don't look over here; look over there! = this still goes on today.)

Obviously too though there were a lot of Jews who were converted; so this wasn't the entire nation. Yet the rejection of Jesus Christ (even today) is still the "official (required) stand" of adherence to that religious system.

The kings being Judean, jives with the rest of Scripture.

Which you got me thinking of something here. Is there a prophecy that the Messiah's own nation would kill him. I'm not sure there's a prophecy specific to that? There might be that I'm not aware of.
I am convinced that Antiochus IV fulfilled the wars with the king of the South etc in Daniel 8 and 11, and that his self-exaltation and activities with regard to his attempts to stamp out the worship of the biblical God and all Jewish forms of worship, and his placing an idol of Zeus in the sanctuary, makes him the key Old Testament type of the man of sin.
Yes, this is the narrative a lot of us have been taught. I encountered something very interesting though when I went looking for information about the Maccabean era from the Greek perspective.

The secular blurb in the official records of the Seleucid empire simply states there were riots in Jerusalem and this is why Antiochus IV stepped in. Now other records closer to the geographical area say that Antiochus IV had found a Greek merchant held captive in the temple; that had been abducted from another area of the empire and had been told by a servant who was providing him with food that he was to be used in a human ritual sacrifice that the Jews had vowed to "hate the Greeks forever". And according to that record; that was the reason Antiochus shut down the animal sacrifices.

Now if you know anything about the history of these accusations that have followed Jews throughout millennia. You get the "context" of where this came from.

The official records from the Seleucid empire didn't say anything about human sacrifices; just that there were riots. So as we see similar to today; there's two competing narratives for who's version of history gets to be broadcast as "the truth". The real truth is usually somewhere between the two narratives.
I agree with what you say about the 8th king. He is one of the seven, and the ten kings of the Revelation will reign with him for one hour, handing over their own power and authority to him. Total 11 kings, one of which is the head of all the others. And they had not received a kingdom as yet when the 6th king existed, and that was when John received the Revelation.
Correct, the text says this.
So the 10 kings can only be the 7th head/mountain/kingdom.
Interesting observation. I'd never picked that out of the text. Not saying you're wrong. I just never noticed that before. I'll have to go look at it again.
The 8th is the beast from the abyss and is one of the 7. His kingdom is also one that existed before John received the Revelation, and will reappear.
Yes, I picked that up too. I think the "origin" of that beast started with the conceptualization of the idea of the "global empire of Rome". Rome was the "empire of the world" as it was known at the time. Thus the "political component" of the beast system's development.

Yet the "religious system" of what that beast system "grows" into; comes out of the Babylonian captivity. What that "religious system" (as it applied to the rebellious of Judea who came out of the Babylonian captivity) ultimately becomes is what we today call Rabbinic Judaism. Modern Judaism is an offshoot of the Pharisees.

The "8th king" is the system itself; which is ultimately ruled by Satan. Now as for a political kingdom that re-emerges thousands of years later? Well that's only happened once in the history of earth (that I'm aware of). Which looking at it in the context of Revelation; makes it pretty ominous for that nation.
Not sure if this is a counterfeit "resurrection" of a human, or simply another human in charge of a kingdom that became "resurrected" so to speak. The former possibility sounds bizarre to me (that of a "resurrected" human - but it's possible if Satan feels the need to match - at least through an illusion - Christ's resurrection from the dead).
I think you're "on the money" here. And that yes; it is an illusion, because Satan can't raise the dead. In reality though, the whole thing is an illusion, because it's a group of people trying to force a particularly narrative upon the population of the rest of earth. And the whole narrative is built on lies.

Now if you start digging through history. (Starting about 1830's) You'll find it. It's pretty glaringly obvious. The most "politically correct" terminology you'll hear today is "Zionism".

Now "resurrected messiah figure"? Will that actually literally "show up" before the end? I don't know the answer to that. I tend to lean toward "No... that's too obvious." But I could be wrong on that too.

Either way, it's all a fake narrative. It's not really a fulfillment of prophecy. Because fundamentally; Christ fulfilled the Scripture.
So if the man of sin points by way of the title "son of perdition" back to Judas Iscariot the betrayer, as well as to Epiphanes ("God manifest") Antiochus IV, and Daniel's 4th beast and Daniel 12 are projecting forward, then the Bible is telling us that Antiochus IV is the type of the 8th king of the Revelation - but also of the man of sin. Which means that the lying wonders mentioned by Paul in 2 Thessalonians 2 are not performed by the man of sin himself, but by the false prophet of Revelation 13, and the man of sin = the beast.
I think you are "seeing the forest"; but looking at the wrong tree.

Judas Iscariot is clearly named as "the son of perdition" / "that Scripture might be fulfilled". Now what sort of carry over this has in relation to the end? I don't know? If there is some sort of information about Judas that is known to the global elites, the Vatican or some other resource of historical information; it's not made its why to the surface for public research. I've found very little in regards to who Judas was connected to in history. I've sen some theories; none of which I thought had any solid evidence of being true.

But yes, I believe you are correct about the lying signs and wonders being performed by false prophets; and the "man of sin" very well may be the beast. But I'm not sure what false prophets you may be contemplating? Modern Christendom has a lot of false prophets with lying signs and wonders. I'm taking for granted that you may already be aware of this though.
I used to believe that "all" (Greek pas, which sometimes means "every" but not always - not each and every (pas) person in Judea and Jerusalem went to john to get baptized) meant all the nations of the earth. But I've come more and more to understand Babylon the Great as the anti-thesis of New Jerusalem, and the type of this is the faithful remnant of Jews who refused to apostatize in any given period in Israel's history being the type of New Jerusalem, and the apostatizing, unfaithful Jews being the kings of the earth (Revelation 1:5-6) fornicating with their mother, Babylon the Great, who sits on many waters, so is Catholic.
Well that's an interesting twist on the conventional narrative that I don't think I've seen before.

I think you are correct though that there's definitely a juxtaposed comparison being made in Scripture between New Jerusalem and corrupt earthy Jerusalem. Revelation 11:8 is pretty clear that the city is Jerusalem. Jesus was not crucified "outside the city gate" of Rome. (Jerusalem also sits on 7 hills.)

Any religious variant though that is not.... (I'm trying to pick words carefully because today many of these words are "politically charged")... true Christianity. (Maybe that's the best way to put it?) is apostasy. Now even in large apostate "churches"; I believe God still has His people that He eventually leads out of those groups. But now that the Messiah is on the scene; any religious system that doesn't recognize that He is the Messiah, is apostate. Now that's not a "politically correct" statement to make; but it is true.
Ever noticed how "the kings of the earth" who committed fornication with Babylon the Great wailed and wept over her when she was destroyed? They could hardly be the same as the ten kings who will "hate the harlot, make her desoltae and naked, eat her flesh and burn her with fire" She has a kingdom over the kings of the earth, is described as a city - the anti-thesis of New Jerusalem - and the waters where she sits are "peoples and multitudes and nations and tongues" - catholic.(Revelation 17:15-18).
Now I agree that "Roman Catholicism" as a political (and religious) entity is part of the "beast system". But it is not the sole part. All the political powers that be are also part of that system and so is the vast majority of Protestantism, Eastern Orthodox, Judaism, Islam... communism, socialism, darwin(sim).... It's a long list of ideologies. Any religious system that has enjoined itself to the political power base structure is part of "the beast system".

Again, I think you are seeing the forest but focusing on a couple of individual trees. The "beast system" is a lot bigger than that.
Regardless, I believe that for sure he will use the banking system and the integrated computerized digitalized one-world system to achieve his goals. And maybe quite a lot of computer produced VR imaging too. South Africa has gone backwards a lot, service delivery collpasing everywhere, but it has always been and remains way ahead with regard to the way everything is linked to your ID number and without your ID card and proof of Residence (a bill sent to your address or some other) you cannot have a bank account, you cannot own a sim card for your mobile, you cannot go to school, you cannot work, and I've only listed a few things you cannot do. You cannot bank without it. Period, and the banks are now pushing for no fiat currency wherever you pay, and no debit cards or credit cards. Finger-printing, facial images (mobile banking), and scan to pay - for anything and everything - is the way they're trying to get everyone to go.
True that technology is what makes the global "beast system" possible. And those that are "running the levers" are going to try and accomplish this. How far they will get before the end comes; I don't know. But I agree, they are definitely going to try.

If you start digging through the language in Revelation about "mark of the beast". You'll see two very interesting things emerge.

There's two words for "receive" the "mark".

1. This is a mark imposed upon groups of people who aren't necessarily "willing" participants. That word "receive" actually means "siege trench". This is the they must "receive" that mark to "buy and sell". It's a component of an economic system. That aspect of "the beast system" I think is already in play. We all have bank cards, account numbers, credit card / debit card numbers, social security / tax ID numbers... We all have IP addresses. That I think is the "siege trench" aspect of the "beast system" that has been imposed on all of us.

2. The second "receive" means: to run after and take hold of. Those people enjoin themselves for the sake of "spiritual" power. They've "sold their souls to the devil" for what ever it is they are seeking. (The base of what they desire is power.) They could be athletes, entertainers, politicians, business people etc. Not that all athletes, entertainers, politicians or business people who are in that system are there to "worship the beast"; but the ones that are become noticeable for that allegiance to Satan; (even if that allegiance isn't obvious - it wasn't obvious with Judas); if that makes sense?

Again, I think the picture is a lot bigger than the widow you are looking through.
 
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Zao is life

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Take the question out of the context of Jewish beliefs about the OT and put it into the context of the Messiah has come.

Herod the Great "defiling the temple" = He tried to kill Christ.
He tried to "ban the worship" of the Messiah.
That seems like an awkward fit to me though. Herod did not exalt himself to the Prince of the host, nor did he claim to be God. Nor did he attempt to fundamentally change the religious worship of the Jews and force them to worship the gods of his choice instead of their own God.

Daniel 9:26-27 said the temple was going to be destroyed. Jesus said "Destroy this temple and in three days I will raise it up". Preterists and Partial Preterists make a big deal about 70 A.D as though that was the end of the ages instead of Jesus' death and resurrection.
And YES! And consider Revelation. "Babylon the mother of harlots" are the people who killed their own prophets.
The same Israel - God's elect nation - that existed before the time of Christ is the Israel that exists post the time of Christ - thanks to God for reserving the faithful remnant for Himself.

Israel is the (faithful) citizens of God's elect nation, and post the time of Christ together they make up the New Testament tabernacle - the church.

Jerusalem and its faithful are the type of New Jerusalem. The unfaithful of Jerusalem were always called an harlot in scripture. They are the type of the Christian unfaithful. New Jerusalem is a spiritual city in the Revelation. So is its anti-thesis, Babylon the Great. I'll get back to this.

Keep in mind the Jewish leaders; (who KNEW Jesus was the Messiah. We know this because of what Nicodemus said to Jesus. "We know you come from God....".) brought the one they knew was their Messiah to a gentile leader to be executed.
God only calls the bride or 'wife' a harlot when she plays the harlot, and those who were broken off from Israel are no longer betrothed to the Groom or married (Jeremiah 31:31-33).

That harlot was broken off from Israel - divorced - and is our example so that we should realize that the unfaithful part of the church that is apostatizing from sound doctrine is an harlot. New Jerusalem is a spiritual city, and so is its anti-thesis, Babylon the Great.

Note: By 'catholic' I meant universal - all nations, tribes and tongues = catholic (whether Protestants or Roman catholic), I did not mean the particular denomination that denies that she is just another denomination, and calls herself the mother. She isn't the only harlot today, and she'd do well to consider, before she calls herself mother church, that Babylon the Great, being a spiritual city and the anti-thesis of New Jerusalem, is the mother of all harlots. The kings of the earth commit fornication with her.
Yet the "religious system" of what that beast system "grows" into; comes out of the Babylonian captivity. What that "religious system" (as it applied to the rebellious of Judea who came out of the Babylonian captivity) ultimately becomes is what we today call Rabbinic Judaism. Modern Judaism is an offshoot of the Pharisees.
But they are no longer betrothed to the Groom or married (Jeremiah 31:31-33) and so can no longer be a harlot. Those who have been broken off from Israel no longer qualify for the position.
The "8th king" is the system itself; which is ultimately ruled by Satan. Now as for a political kingdom that re-emerges thousands of years later? Well that's only happened once in the history of earth (that I'm aware of). Which looking at it in the context of Revelation; makes it pretty ominous for that nation.

I think you're "on the money" here. And that yes; it is an illusion, because Satan can't raise the dead. In reality though, the whole thing is an illusion, because it's a group of people trying to force a particularly narrative upon the population of the rest of earth. And the whole narrative is built on lies.

Now if you start digging through history. (Starting about 1830's) You'll find it. It's pretty glaringly obvious. The most "politically correct" terminology you'll hear today is "Zionism".
I think I know which kingdom you mean. In this regard I believe that the 'head' (of the beast) is a metaphor, and because the Bible is always consistent, the metaphor should be understood in terms of this:

8 For the head of Syria is Damascus, and the head of Damascus is Rezin; and within sixty-five years Ephraim shall be broken so that it shall not be a people.
9 And the head of Ephraim is Samaria, and the head of Samaria is Remaliah's son. If you will not believe, surely you shall not be established.

The head of Judea was Jerusalem. It received a mortal wound to its head in 70 A.D and its mortal wound has been healed, or is in the process of healing. It's inhabitants came out of the nations in waves of migration back into the land, following the birth of Zionism. The Zionist movement was begun by secular Jews, unbelievers of the gospel of God in Christ. It was granted independence by the (united) nations in 1948, the goal being realized. And it's been a political mess ever since and it can hardly be said that the people do not live in un-walled villages in the West Bank (most of Judea lies in the West Bank).

"Look at what marvelous work God has done" is a strong delusion. I'm not saying it's the strong delusion of 2 Thessalonians 2, although I do believe it could very well be part of it. Another part is the insistence that obedience to the law and commandments produces the fruit of the Spirit that fulfills the law and commandments.

But the truth is that the fruit of the Spirit is not produced by obedience to the law and commandments - it's only produced by dwelling in the Vine through faith in Him. It's His fruit, because we are unrighteous and incapable of producing the fruit of the Spirit that fulfills the law and the commandments, through our obedience to the law and commandments (which is our fruit, not the fruit of the Spirit).

But there's a lot more apostasy and playing the harlot going on. The "manifest sons of God" and other heresies to name just one more.

Outside of New Jerusalem are dogs and sorcerers, and Jesus was crucified outside the city gates. He had been betrayed by the son of perdition.

I don't believe that the temple of 2 Thessalonians 2:4 is a physical temple in Jerusalem. And the other son of perdition had been a prominent leader, one of the inner circle, one of the twelve, a follower of Christ. Not one of the other apostles or disciples had any idea until the night of the last supper that Judas was a devil among them. Only Jesus knew.

I believe we are making a huge mistake when instead of looking at our example (the harlot of Old Testament Israel) and realizing she is our example, we identify the spiritual corpse that is not part of Israel in God's eyes, the moment we are told about the harlot that will be destroyed by the ten kings before the return of Christ.

The kings of the earth and Babylon the Great and Jezebel of the church at Thyatira are the only three entities accused of fornication in the Revelation.

Jesus is the ruler of the (faithful) kings of the earth (Revelation 1:5-6) - the same kings of the earth that you also see in New Jerusalem in Revelation 21.

Babylon the Great is a (spiritual) city that has kingship over the (unfaithful) kings of the earth (Revelation 17:18). They committed fornication with her and wept and wailed over her demise in Revelation 18, so they are hardly the same as the 10 kings who hated the harlot and destroyed her.
I think you are correct though that there's definitely a juxtaposed comparison being made in Scripture between New Jerusalem and corrupt earthy Jerusalem. Revelation 11:8 is pretty clear that the city is Jerusalem. Jesus was not crucified "outside the city gate" of Rome. (Jerusalem also sits on 7 hills.)
Outside of New Jerusalem are dogs and sorcerers and all who practice a lie. Apostates.
If you start digging through the language in Revelation about "mark of the beast". You'll see two very interesting things emerge.

There's two words for "receive" the "mark".

1. This is a mark imposed upon groups of people who aren't necessarily "willing" participants. That word "receive" actually means "siege trench". This is the they must "receive" that mark to "buy and sell". It's a component of an economic system. That aspect of "the beast system" I think is already in play. We all have bank cards, account numbers, credit card / debit card numbers, social security / tax ID numbers... We all have IP addresses. That I think is the "siege trench" aspect of the "beast system" that has been imposed on all of us.

2. The second "receive" means: to run after and take hold of. Those people enjoin themselves for the sake of "spiritual" power. They've "sold their souls to the devil" for what ever it is they are seeking. (The base of what they desire is power.) They could be athletes, entertainers, politicians, business people etc. Not that all athletes, entertainers, politicians or business people who are in that system are there to "worship the beast"; but the ones that are become noticeable for that allegiance to Satan; (even if that allegiance isn't obvious - it wasn't obvious with Judas); if that makes sense?

Again, I think the picture is a lot bigger than the widow you are looking through.
That's interesting, and I think partly correct. But associated with it there will be an image of the beast to either worship, or be killed. So it sounds to me rather like coercion will be employed, using the technology already in place (look at how people have been coerced already to receive a jab against ... that no one is allowed to know the ingredients of, and told to just trust in the science and the scientists on the payroll of ... (the dots are to prevent breaking a rule, just in case there is a a rule about the subject in these forums).

Revelation tells of an angel going out with a message "Do not worship the image of the beast.." and the warning of the consequences of worshiping it, and it's associated with the statement that the judgment of God has come, and Babylon the Great has fallen.

I think it's dangerous to 'spiritualize' the mark, or regard it as figurative. It may be figurative, but I err on the side of caution, taking the words at face value, knowing that everyone was forced to worship Nebuchadnezzar's 'image of the beast' or be thrown into a burning, fiery furnace (the type), and knowing the history of what Antiochus IV did, and recognizing his exalting himself to the Prince of the host and placing an idol in the temple (another type) with what 2 Thessalonians 2:4 says.

There are a few types of Christ in the Old Testament, and there are a few Antichrist figures (types) also - beginning with Cain, then Pharaoh, then .. and Antiochus IV is also one of the types - but 2 Thessalonians 2:1-4 takes our minds back to two types especially: Judas Iscariot, and Antiochus IV, and it just so happens that Daniel's fourth beast's final end, and Daniel Chapter 12 continuing the narrative about Antiochus IV, projects forward to the end of this Age. Nebuchadnezzar's 'image of the beast' is the type of the one to come.

The Bible gives us clues in the form of types, and this is especially prevalent in the Revelation - Moses and Aaron were God's two witnesses in Egypt who brought a locust plague upon Pharaoh's kingdom, turned the waters into blood, etc - things that are repeated in the Revelation, which tells us that God's two witnesses will bring plagues on the earth as often as they desire (Revelation 11:6).
 
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That seems like an awkward fit to me though. Herod did not exalt himself to the Prince of the host, nor did he claim to be God. Nor did he attempt to fundamentally change the religious worship of the Jews and force them to worship the gods of his choice instead of their own God.
I dug a little further into the Herods:

You agree that "the Prince of the host" is Christ; correct? Well that narrows down who could possibly be "the little horn" in Daniel. It could not be Antiochus IV because that was 200 years before Christ.

So, it would have to be one of the Herods.

What more could Herod the Great do against the Prince of the host than to try and kill him? You are aware that Herod the Great tried to kill Jesus by killing all the babies in Bethlehem and the surrounding area under two years old. (Matthew 2:16) I'm sure you must know that story! Matthew says that was a fulfillment of a prophecy in Jeremiah. I looked it up in Jeremiah. But it doesn't say anything about the king.

In Matthew 2:12 though; God Himself warns the magi to depart to their own countries in different directions than which they came.

Also in Matthew 2:22 God Himself warns Joseph not to return to Bethlehem.

Then you have the Herod who was part of Jesus's trial. The same Herod who put John the Baptist to death. A group of pharisees came to Jesus on the Monday before the crucifixion and told Jesus that Herod sought to kill him. (Luke 13:31)

Acts 12:19-23 This is Herod the Great's grandson in this story. (Agrippa 1) Right in the text; he did not deny the people when they claimed he was God. (This is the stated reason why God struck him down.) I believe Herod Agrippa 1 was the "little horn" in Daniel. Herod the Great was the proverbial "big horn" (although the Scripture never uses that term).

Daniel 7:8 Three of the 4 horns had fallen before Agrippa 1 came along. Two of those three had ruled the same area.
1. Herod the Great - died in 4BC
2. Herod Archelaus - died in 18 AD But had been exiled to Gaul in 6 AD.
3. Herod Antipas - died 34 to 39 AD (some records say 34 while others say 39. I believe he was also deposed by Rome for failure to keep the peace. History does not record what happened to him.
4. Herod Agrippa 1 - 44 AD - This is the Herod in Acts
5. Herod Philip - 34 AD (ruled territory on the other side of the Dead Sea.)
6. Herod Chalcis - 48 AD
7. Herod Agrippa 2 - about 90 AD.

Daniel 8:9 says that the little horn comes out of one of the 4 horns that came forth from the original horn that was broken. Herod the Great's kingdom was divided among his 4 sons. Whereas Alexander the Great's kingdom was split up into like 9 different kingdoms; not four.

This passage in Daniel also says that 3 (of the 4 horns that came from the "big horn") came before the "little horn" and the "little horn" came from one of the four that proceeded him.

3 of the other ruling Herod's died before Agrippa 1 did. (Archelaus, Antipas and Philip)

Now allegedly, Agrippa 1's father was not Archelaus, Antipas, Philip, or Chalicis. Herod the Great though had Agrippa 1's grandmother executed for adultery. (Herod the Great's 2nd wife; Mariamne was a Hasmonean princess.) Their son Aristobulus IV was allegedly Agrippa 1's father. His mother (Bernice) was Herod the Great's sister. Yet according to Daniel 8:9 Agrippa 1's father was one of the other four Herods. Which one; I'm not sure, but I'm guessing Archelaus because Antipas never produced an heir.

There's an interesting "verbal conflict" between Antipas and Jesus about who is the legitimate "King of the Jews". (I'll get to that in a minute.)

Herod the Great wanted to claim the title Messiah. When he rebuilt the temple; he'd destroyed all the genealogical records, so no one could prove that he wasn't from the line of David. Herod the Great's ancestors were half Greek. He was (allegedly) half Jewish (if he was actually Judean at all). Josephus insists that Herod the Great was an "edomite". The Edomites traditionally were descendants of Esau.

So the "verbal conflict" between Antipas and Jesus centered around Herod's apparent impotence. He never produced an heir and his reputation as a flaming homosexual proceeded him. Jesus makes some interesting statements about Herod being a "f*g" "soft raiment for those who live in king's houses". That's a reference to transvestism. Herod was stated to have dressed in women's clothes. Jesus makes a statement to Herod about Jesus being "perfected" on the 3rd day. "Perfected" is a Greek idiom for the point where a male produces conception. The metaphoric reference has to do with Pentecost; which in Daniel is called "the consummation". It's an interesting conflict between the two of them. This conflict appears to have "originate" about 10 AD. (Jesus would have been about 17 years old; which culturally would have been the appropriate time to start looking for a wife.) when Antipas became "king of the Jews". (All the Herods wanted to claim that title.) So thus the "verbal jousting" seemed to be around the rightful King is not impotent. Which gets into the cultural thing about the "seed of Abraham" being "the chosen people". Interesting slant on history at least; as well as an obvious (though somewhat crude Greek idiom) that Jesus obviously knew what happened to men in the process of conception.

So there's this long standing conflict between the Herods and Jesus.

Herod the Great tries to kill Jesus when he was a baby.
Herod Antipas is the Herod at Jesus's trial, who'd had John the Baptist beheaded.
Herod Agrippa 1 kills James and arrests Peter. Then he's eaten by worms for failure to acknowledge that he's not God.

Shortly after Agrippa 1's alleged father (Aristobulus IV) dies; Agrippa is sent to Rome to be educated. He's a "good friend" of Caligula and knew Nero. Nero was Caligula's nephew and Nero was sexually abused by Caligula. (Also possibly / probably by Agrippa 1; although there is no historical record about Agrippa 1 abusing Nero. There's lots of records of Caligula's sexual perversions though.)

Now the historical record doesn't plainly state (that I'm aware of) that Agrippa 1 was homosexual. His son though is Agrippa II (who meets Paul). Agrippa II is the 7th and last Herod in the line.

Now was Judas related to any of the Herods? That I don't know. (Doesn't seem like he was.) We do know Judas was a scribe of sorts and that is father is named in Scripture.
Daniel 9:26-27 said the temple was going to be destroyed. Jesus said "Destroy this temple and in three days I will raise it up". Preterists and Partial Preterists make a big deal about 70 A.D as though that was the end of the ages instead of Jesus' death and resurrection.
Scripture does state that the generation that (was standing there in Jesus' physical presence) would be the generation that would see the end of the "eon". (The end of the age.) Note "age" (singular) not end of the ages. The "age" Jesus was talking about was Judaism. What the OT had prophesied of (the coming Messiah) had been fulfilled.

Ephesians 2 talks about the "middle wall of partition" between jew and gentile having been "torn down" because Christ had made the two "one man" having reconciled the two by the cross. Now obviously God is not going to go back and resurrect that wall. There's no reason to. When "the fullness of the gentiles comes in; all Israel is saved." "All Israel" are all those bought by the blood of Christ. He is the "seed of Abraham". (Galatians 3:16)

Paul talks about the "dispensation" of the grace of God that has been given to him. Well despite common beliefs; the term "dispensation" actually doesn't have anything to do with time. The word literally means "female servant who runs the household". Paul talks about in Ephesians 1 how this stewardship (to make the two one) had been handed to him.

So why would God; Who'd enjoined groups of people together as one body; turn around and divide them again? There's not "future golden age of redemption" for Israel. Anyone who's coming into the Kingdom is only coming trough the blood!

I'll come back to the rest of this conversation later. This reply is pretty long as it is.

But I think it's important to clarify what we mean by "Israel" and to get a good understanding of what happened historically to the rebellious of the nation. The rebellious were always subject to destruction. And several times over had been purged.
 
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I dug a little further into the Herods:

You agree that "the Prince of the host" is Christ; correct? Well that narrows down who could possibly be "the little horn" in Daniel. It could not be Antiochus IV because that was 200 years before Christ.

So, it would have to be one of the Herods.

Christ existed from eternity. The blood of Christ became necessary for the salvation of any human being moment Adam sinned, and the way to receive salvation - whether before or after Christ came, is though faith in the Word of God. The blood of Christ covers those who came before His time and those who came into the world after His time (after His ascension).

Jesus is God manifest. "Epiphanes" means "God manifest", and it's the Epithet Antiochus IV attached to his name.

So, it could not have been one of the Herods because none of them magnified themselves to the Prince of the host through the tile "God manifest".
 
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The Righterzpen

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Christ existed from eternity. The blood of Christ became necessary for the salvation of any human being moment Adam sinned, and the way to receive salvation - whether before or after Christ came, is though faith in the Word of God. The blood of Christ covers those who came before His time and those who came into the world after His time (after His ascension).

Jesus is God manifest. "Epiphanes" means "God manifest", and it's the Epithet Antiochus IV attached to his name.

So, it could not have been one of the Herods because none of them magnified themselves to the Prince of the host through the tile "God manifest".
But this has no connection to Scripture. And none of the other stuff in Daniel fits Antiochus IV. The closest you get to "God manifest" in the NT is "Emanuel". Which is a Greek transliteration of a compound Hebrew word. "God" "among" (us).

But all the Herods claimed they were "the king of the Jews".
 
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Alexander the Great's kingdom was split up into like 9 different kingdoms; not four.
That's not the same as the history contained in Josephus or the books of the Maccabees, and it has not been held by historians or Bible commenters, so to me it seems like new history that has been added by someone for the benefit of attaching the label "God manifest" (the Prince of the host) to Herod the Great.

Herod the Great is merely another type of the Antichrist. He did not do what Antiochus IV did to the temple of God, nor did he exalt himself to the position of the Prince of the host (God manifest). Herod was obviously Satan's agent when Satan tried to kill the Messiah. But that's all.
 
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The Righterzpen

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That's not the same as the history contained in Josephus or the books of the Maccabees, and it has not been held by historians or Bible commenters, so to me it seems like new history that has been added by someone for the benefit of attaching the label "God manifest" (the Prince of the host) to Herod the Great.

Herod the Great is merely another type of the Antichrist. He did not do what Antiochus IV did to the temple of God, nor did he exalt himself to the position of the Prince of the host (God manifest). Herod was obviously Satan's agent when Satan tried to kill the Messiah. But that's all.
Actually only 3 of Alexander's generals ruled and the "Macedonian" (Greece) was divided up into a bunch of separate city states. Besides the 3 empires were divided into regions too.

And do we know for sure that Antiochus actually did what Maccabees claims that he did? According to the records of his own empire; he didn't.

And the label "God manifest" in the Greek means nothing in the Hebrew Scripture. But "the prince of the host (king of the Jews) has a context to the Old Testament.

 
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Zao is life

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But this has no connection to Scripture. And none of the other stuff in Daniel fits Antiochus IV.

But all the Herods claimed they were "the king of the Jews".
All of the stuff in Daniel fits Antiochus.

(1) He set himself against the pleasant land, the land of Israel.

(2) He fought against the host of heaven, that is, the people of God, the church, which is the kingdom of heaven here on earth.

The saints, being born from above, and citizens of heaven (The New Testament tells us this, and in the old Testament the saints were also referred to as the stars of heaven on numerous occasions). The stars, the heavenly host are called the stars of heaven in numerous biblical prophecies.

(3) He cast down some of the host (that is, of the stars, for they are called the host of heaven) to the ground, and stamped upon them.

He attempted to force the faithful to comply with his idolatries, and if they did not, he put them to death. He did this with Eleazar, and the seven brother, whom he put to death with cruel tortures, because they would not eat swine's flesh, 2 Maccabees 6:7.

(4) Antiochus IV exalted his throne above the stars of God, just as the king of Babylon had done Isaiah 14:13.

(5) He magnified himself even to the prince of the host with the title "Epiphanes" ("God manifest"). He set himself against the high priest, Onias, whom he deprived of his dignity.

(6) He took away the daily sacrifice. The morning and evening lamb, which God appointed to be offered every day upon his altar to his honour, Antiochus forbade and restrained the offering of.

And there is a whole lot more. A whole lot more.

Antiochus IV continued to oppress Jerusalem from the 142nd year of the Seleucid (Syrian) Empire (the kings of the North) which arose as one of the two most powerful of the four kingdoms that replaced Alexander's rule (the other one was Egypt - the kings of the South) - from the sixth month of that year, and the 6th day of the month (according to Josephus), and the transgression ended with the cleansing of the sanctuary, and the reestablishment of religion of the Jews, which was in the 148th year, the 9th month, and the 25th day of the month, according to 1 Maccabees 4:52 - 2300 days.

The Word of God explains it to us all:

15 And it came to pass, when I, even I Daniel, had seen the vision, and sought for the meaning, then, behold, there stood before me as the appearance of a man. 16 And I heard a man's voice between the banks of Ulai, which called, and said, Gabriel, make this man to understand the vision. 17 So he came near where I stood: and when he came, I was afraid, and fell upon my face: but he said unto me, Understand, O son of man: for at the time of the end shall be the vision. 18 Now as he was speaking with me, I was in a deep sleep on my face toward the ground: but he touched me, and set me upright. 19 And he said, Behold, I will make thee know what shall be in the last end of the indignation: for at the time appointed the end shall be. 20

The ram which thou sawest having two horns are the kings of Media and Persia. 21 And the rough goat is the king of Grecia: and the great horn that is between his eyes is the first king.

22 Now that being broken, whereas four stood up for it, four kingdoms shall stand up out of the nation, but not in his power.

23 And in the latter time of their kingdom, when the transgressors are come to the full, a king of fierce countenance, and understanding dark sentences, shall stand up. 24 And his power shall be mighty, but not by his own power: and he shall destroy wonderfully, and shall prosper, and practise, and shall destroy the mighty and the holy people.

25 And through his policy also he shall cause craft to prosper in his hand; and he shall magnify himself in his heart, and by peace shall destroy many: he shall also stand up against the Prince of princes; but he shall be broken without hand.

26 And the vision of the evening and the morning which was told is true: wherefore shut thou up the vision; for it shall be for many days (Daniel was prophesying hundreds of years before Antiochus IV rose to power - even before the first Greek Empire).

And I have not even got started yet on Chapter 11 and how, detail by detail, Antiochus IV fulfilled the history written in that chapter.

We cannot discard all the historical evidence (the mountain of evidence) just so that we can find a different explanation of the Revelation

(Well, there;s no law that says we cannot - but if we do so, what we come up with will confuse what the scriptures are saying).

Herod the Great is another type of Antichrist. But he most certainly does not fit the picture of the key type of the Antichrist given us in 2 Thessalonians 2. Antiochus IV does, though. 100%. Herod the Great fits the picture maybe 5%.​
 
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Zao is life

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Actually only 3 of Alexander's generals ruled and the "Macedonian" (Greece) was divided up into a bunch of separate city states. Besides the 3 empires were divided into regions too.

And do we know for sure that Antiochus actually did what Maccabees claims that he did? According to the records of his own empire; he didn't.

And the label "God manifest" in the Greek means nothing in the Hebrew Scripture. But "the prince of the host (king of the Jews) has a context to the Old Testament.

When he was asked who should succeed him, Alexander said, “the strongest”, which answer led to his empire being divided between four of his generals: Cassander, Ptolemy, Antigonus, and Seleucus (known as the Diadochi or ‘successors’).

The power struggles that broke out afterwards between them eventually resulted in two of the original four becoming the most powerful: The Seleucid kingdom of the North (Syria), and the Ptolemaic kingdom of the South (Egypt).

Antiochus rose from out of the Seleucid kingdom of the North.


We should not attempt to rewrite the Bible account of what happened to the Greek Empire after the death of Alexander by attempts to confuse matters so as to deny the accuracy of the biblical prophecy - especially since Daniel was given its meaning:

Daniel 8
19 And he said, Behold, I will make you know what shall happen in the last end of the indignation. For it is for the time appointed for the end.
20 The ram which you saw having two horns are the kings of Media and Persia.
21 And the shaggy goat is the king of Greece. And the great horn between his eyes is the first king.
22 And as for that being broken, and four stood up in its place; four kingdoms shall stand up out of the nation, but not in its power.
23 And in the latter time of their kingdom, when the transgressors have come to the full, a king, fierce of face, and skilled at intrigues, shall stand up.
24 And his power shall be mighty, but not by his own power. And he shall destroy marvelously, and shall prosper and work, and destroy the mighty and the holy people.
25 And also through his understanding, he shall cause deceit to succeed in his hand. And he shall magnify himself in his heart, and by peace shall destroy many. He also shall stand up against the Ruler of rulers. But he shall be broken without a hand.
26 And the vision of the evening and the morning which was told is true. But you shall shut up the vision; for it shall be for many days.
 
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claninja

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The first question asked, when shall these things be? At this point it appears to center around what Jesus said in verse 2.

I would absolutely agree. Though, Fullness of the Gentiles appeared to make the argument that because there are no chapters and divisions in the original Greek AND Jesus left the temple, that vs. 1-2 really belong to chapter 23, while vs 3 begins the OD. Honestly, I can’t follow the logic with that, nor have I found any serious scholarship that would agree with such.

It really doesn’t work nor make Much sense, considering the apostles ask “when will THESE THINGS happen?”. What “things” were the apostles asking about? Clearly, that’s the destruction of the temple mentioned Vs 2.


. But that is not the only thing they asked. They also asked--- and what shall be the sign of thy coming, and of the end of the world?

This is definitely the better argument than stating vs 3 has nothing to do with vs 1-2.

But you know me, David, I’m man of comparing scripture with scripture. I absolutely agree the disciples asked 2 questions, and I believe the “sign” in all 3 parallel passages refers to the same thing


Mark 13:4 Tell us, when will these things happen? And what will be the sign that they are about to be fulfilled?”

Luke 21:7 Teacher,” they asked, “when will these things happen? And what will be the sign that they are about to take place?”

Matthew 24:3 Tell us,” they said, “when will these things happen, and what will be the sign of Your coming and of the end of the age?”

Matthew 24:4 And Jesus answered and said unto them, Take heed that no man deceive you.
5 For many shall come in my name, saying, I am Christ; and shall deceive many.


Let's stop here for now. What would be the connection with this and what is recorded in verse 1 and 2? What does verse 4 and 5 have to do with what happened to the city and the temple in 70 AD? Even if verse 5 is already being fulfilled prior to 70 AD, is one then going to argue that it is no longer being fulfilled after 70 AD? And the same for verses 6 through 12, that even if some of that was already happening before 70 AD, is one going to argue that none of it also happening after 70 AD? How then can 70 AD be as far as the Discourse is seeing? Why would Jesus predict events that might involve both before 70 AD and after 70 AD, if all the Discourse is seeing are events up unto 70 AD?

If one argues, that prior to 70 AD verse 5 was already being fulfilled, thus this proves that the Discourse is only focusing on events leading up to 70 AD and 70 AD itself---but what kind of argument is that when verse 5 equally applies to after 70 AD? It would be a valid argument if verse 5 can only apply up unto 70 AD and that it can't also apply after 70 AD. Do Preterists even believe that, though? That verse 5 can only apply up unto 70 AD and not after 70 AD as well?

Vs 4-5 are the the “beginning of birth pangs” and the things that must “first take place”.

Matthew 24:6-8See that you are not alarmed, for this must take place, but the end is not yet” 7For nation will rise against nation, and kingdom against kingdom, and there will be famines and earthquakes in various places. 8All these are but the beginning of the birth pains


Luke 21:8 8And he said, “See that you are not led astray. For many will come in my name, saying, ‘I am he!’ and, ‘The time is at hand!’ Do not go after them. 9And when you hear of wars and tumults, do not be terrified, for these things must first take place, but the end will not be at once.”

Partial preterism doesn’t deny that false prophets, and wars have occurred post 70ad. the argument is that per audience relevance, Jesus was exhorting his disciples not to be alarmed by false prophets, and wars and earthquakes prior to 70ad, as these things must first occur.
 
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claninja

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It's you who does not address the things that show how your gospel of the kingdom of destruction of the temple in Jerusalem is no gospel at all. That's why there is no point in going further. You avoid basic Christian apostolic doctrine and repeatedly claim that something other than what is meant by what is written is the case.

Since you do not believe the foundational apostolic doctrinal truth that the Kingdom of God is the Kingdom of Christ, and the Kingdom of Heaven is the Kingdom of God, which is brought about by God through the death and resurrection of His Son, and if you deny that the end of the ages occurred when Jesus died on the cross and rose again (Hebrews 9:24-28), there is no point in engaging with you any further on this.

I literally just provided you Hebrews 9:26 and agreed Jesus died at the end of the ages. Are you misreading my posts or deliberately bearing false witness?


You continue to avoid addressing any of my points and misrepresenting my position, whether by misreading or deliberately.
 
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Zao is life

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Matthew 27:53 And came out of the graves after his resurrection, and went into the holy city, and appeared unto many.


Based on what this verse says, I can't figure out why you are equating the holy city with the NJ in heaven, which then doesn't explain this part---and appeared unto many. This only makes sense if the holy city meant here is meaning Jerusalem in the middle east in the first century, that they went into that city, and in that city appeared unto many. Not to mention, at this point in time Jesus had not even ascended into heaven yet, therefore, it doesn't make sense that the saints that came out of their graves after He has resurrected, that they would ascend to heaven before He does. Unless I'm misunderstanding you somewhere, you might want to rethink some of this.

John 20:17 Jesus saith unto her, Touch me not; for I am not yet ascended to my Father: but go to my brethren, and say unto them, I ascend unto my Father, and your Father; and to my God, and your God.

Would this not be meaning after the graves were opened, and that the bodies of many saints came out of the graves? And does not this verse say Jesus had not yet ascended to heaven at this point?
I almost missed this, sorry.

We're talking about such a vague two lines of scripture, but ..

Before Matthew 27:53, the last time Jerusalem is called the holy city in the New Testament is in Matthew 4:5 - but after Matthew 27:53, the Revelation calls Jerusalem the holy city:

There are no verses in the Revelation where Babylon the Great, or the city spiritually called Sodom and Egypt, or the cities of the nations which fell when the 7th bowl of wrath was poured out are called "the holy city", but the Revelation calls New Jerusalem "the holy city" three times: Revelation 21:2; Revelation 21:10; and Revelation 22:19.

Revelation 11:2 is talking about the holy city. The temple that Revelation 11:1 is referring to is the naós - it uses the word naós for "temple".

Your question seems to be based on the assumption that new Jerusalem was a ghost town at the time when those who were resurrected entered into the holy city, so that there was no one for them to appear to.

THE HOLY CITY

But you have come to Mount Zion
and to the city of the living God,
the heavenly Jerusalem,
and to an innumerable company of angels,
to the general assembly and church of the first-born
who are written in Heaven,
and to God the judge of all,
and to the spirits of just men made perfect,
and to Jesus the Mediator of the new covenant,
and to the blood of sprinkling that speaks better things than that of Abel.
(Hebrews 12:22-24)

Jerusalem:

"For Hagar is Mount Sinai in Arabia, and answers to Jerusalem which now is, and is in slavery with her children. But the Jerusalem from above is free, who is the mother of us all." (Galatians 4:25-26).

Maybe they appeared to the disciples of Jesus. The two lines of scripture are far too vague to break our backs over, and in any case they are disjointed from the rest of the surrounding text, like as if a later scribe had found it on a fragment and didn't know where it belonged so shoved it in there.

Matthew 27
50 And crying again with a loud voice, Jesus released His spirit.
51 And, behold! The veil of the temple was torn in two from top to bottom. And the earth quaked, and the rocks were sheared,
54 But the centurion and those guarding Jesus, seeing the earthquake, and the things that took place, they feared greatly, saying, Truly this One was Son of God.

52 and the tombs were opened, and many bodies of the saints who had fallen asleep arose,
53 and coming out of the tomb after His resurrection they went into the holy city and appeared to many.

The two lines are not found in the other two synoptic gospels. You'd think they would be, because you'd think it's such an important fact to record.

Mark 15
37 And letting out a loud voice, Jesus expired.
38 And the veil of the temple was torn in two from top to bottom.
39 And when the centurion, who stood across from him, saw that He cried out so, and expired, he said, Truly this man was Son of God.

Luke 23
45 And the sun was darkened, and the veil of the temple was torn in the middle.
46 And crying with a loud voice, Jesus said, Father, into Your hands I commit My spirit. And when He had said this, He breathed out the spirit.
47 And when the centurion saw what had been done, he glorified God, saying, Truly this Man was righteous.

So I don't think we should break our backs over it. I just don't see Jerusalem being considered the holy city after Jesus died and rose again.
 
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I literally just provided you Hebrews 9:26 and agreed Jesus died at the end of the ages. Are you misreading my posts or deliberately bearing false witness?

You continue to avoid addressing any of my points and misrepresenting my position, whether by misreading or deliberately.
So you concede that the end of the age has nothing to do with 70 A.D? Because you said,
Thus Jesus said “this generation shall not pass away til all these things occur” (general time frame).

This is confirmed by the apostles claiming:

1.) the end of all things had drawn near ( 1 peter 4:7)

2.) it was the last hour (1 john 2:18)

3.) the coming of Christ had drawn near (James 5:8)

4.) Christ would come in a little while and without delay (Hebrews 10:37)

5,) the end of the ages had come upon them (1 Corinthians 10:11)

So not sure what’s ambiguous there? [/B]
You said the above in the same context as talking about the approaching of 70 A.D subsequent to the death and resurrection of Christ.
 
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claninja

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you concede that the end of the age has nothing to do with 70 A.D? Because you said,

Christ died at the end of the ages, the Holy Spirit was poured out at the end of the ages, Paul claimed they were living in the end of the ages, and the temple was also destroyed in the end of the ages.

So I don’t know what you mean by this question? You agree Christ came at the end of the ages but you don’t believe temple was destroyed during any point of the end of the ages? If that’s not what you mean by the question, can you clarify?


You said the above in the same context as talking about the approaching of 70 A.D subsequent to the death and resurrection of Christ.

Well to be fair, the apostles said those things post the resurrection and pre 70ad.
 
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Zao is life

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Christ died at the end of the ages, the Holy Spirit was poured out at the end of the ages, Paul claimed they were living in the end of the ages, and the temple was also destroyed in the end of the ages.

So I don’t know what you mean by this question? You agree Christ came at the end of the ages but you don’t believe temple was destroyed during any point of the end of the ages? If that’s not what you mean by the question, can you clarify?



Well to be fair, the apostles said those things post the resurrection and pre 70ad.
Hebrews 9
24 For Christ did not enter a sanctuary made with hands - the representation of the true sanctuary - but into heaven itself, and he appears now in God's presence for us.
25 And he did not enter to offer himself again and again, the way the high priest enters the sanctuary year after year with blood that is not his own,
26 for then he would have had to suffer again and again since the foundation of the world. But now he has appeared once for all at the consummation of the ages to put away sin by his sacrifice.
27 And just as people are appointed to die once, and then to face judgment,
28 so also, after Christ was offered once to bear the sins of many, to those who eagerly await him he will appear a second time, not to bear sin but to bring salvation.

The end of the ages is linked in the above verses to Jesus' death only. It doesn't say Jesus' once-for-all sacrifice for our sins AND the destruction of the temple in Jerusalem 40 years later. 70 A.D is not hinted at in the above statements and is clearly not meant. It's another eisegeses to say that the end of the age refers to both.
 
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claninja

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Hebrews 9
24 For Christ did not enter a sanctuary made with hands - the representation of the true sanctuary - but into heaven itself, and he appears now in God's presence for us.
25 And he did not enter to offer himself again and again, the way the high priest enters the sanctuary year after year with blood that is not his own,
26 for then he would have had to suffer again and again since the foundation of the world. But now he has appeared once for all at the consummation of the ages to put away sin by his sacrifice.
27 And just as people are appointed to die once, and then to face judgment,
28 so also, after Christ was offered once to bear the sins of many, to those who eagerly await him he will appear a second time, not to bear sin but to bring salvation.

The end of the ages is linked in the above verses to Jesus' death only. Not to Jesus' once-for-all sacrifice for our sins AND to the destruction of the temple in Jerusalem 40 years later. 70 A.D is not hinted at in the above statements and is clearly not meant. It's another eisegeses to say that the end of the age refers to both.

Still not following your logic. Your argument seems that the end of the ages = only the death of Christ. But that doesn’t make sense, as Paul said the end of the ages came upon them some 20 years later in 1 Corinthians 10:11. So can you clarify in case I misunderstood you.

I believe the end of the ages is the time period starting with Christ’s ministry, death, and resurrection. I believe this time period known as the “end of the ages” includes events such as Christ’s death, the pouring out of the spirit, Paul’s days when 1 Corinthians 10:11 was written, the destruction of Jerusalem, etc….
 
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Zao is life

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Still not following your logic. Your argument seems that the end of the ages = only the death of Christ. But that doesn’t make sense, as Paul said the end of the ages came upon them some 20 years later in 1 Corinthians 10:11. So can you clarify in case I misunderstood you.

I believe the end of the ages is the time period starting with Christ’s ministry, death, and resurrection. I believe this time period known as the “end of the ages” includes events such as Christ’s death, the pouring out of the spirit, Paul’s days when 1 Corinthians 10:11 was written, the destruction of Jerusalem, etc….
1 Corinthians 10:11 Paul mentions the fact that the end of the ages has already come - and he knew it came when Jesus died and rose again.

I'm not talking to you about this anymore - not because I have no answer - because my answer is the Bile's answer - but because you have no answer, and though the truth about the end of the age is staring at you, you refuse to accept it.
 
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All of the stuff in Daniel fits Antiochus.

(1) He set himself against the pleasant land, the land of Israel.

(2) He fought against the host of heaven, that is, the people of God, the church, which is the kingdom of heaven here on earth.

The saints, being born from above, and citizens of heaven (The New Testament tells us this, and in the old Testament the saints were also referred to as the stars of heaven on numerous occasions). The stars, the heavenly host are called the stars of heaven in numerous biblical prophecies.

(3) He cast down some of the host (that is, of the stars, for they are called the host of heaven) to the ground, and stamped upon them.

He attempted to force the faithful to comply with his idolatries, and if they did not, he put them to death. He did this with Eleazar, and the seven brother, whom he put to death with cruel tortures, because they would not eat swine's flesh, 2 Maccabees 6:7.

(4) Antiochus IV exalted his throne above the stars of God, just as the king of Babylon had done Isaiah 14:13.

(5) He magnified himself even to the prince of the host with the title "Epiphanes" ("God manifest"). He set himself against the high priest, Onias, whom he deprived of his dignity.

(6) He took away the daily sacrifice. The morning and evening lamb, which God appointed to be offered every day upon his altar to his honour, Antiochus forbade and restrained the offering of.

And there is a whole lot more. A whole lot more.

Antiochus IV continued to oppress Jerusalem from the 142nd year of the Seleucid (Syrian) Empire (the kings of the North) which arose as one of the two most powerful of the four kingdoms that replaced Alexander's rule (the other one was Egypt - the kings of the South) - from the sixth month of that year, and the 6th day of the month (according to Josephus), and the transgression ended with the cleansing of the sanctuary, and the reestablishment of religion of the Jews, which was in the 148th year, the 9th month, and the 25th day of the month, according to 1 Maccabees 4:52 - 2300 days.

The Word of God explains it to us all:

15 And it came to pass, when I, even I Daniel, had seen the vision, and sought for the meaning, then, behold, there stood before me as the appearance of a man. 16 And I heard a man's voice between the banks of Ulai, which called, and said, Gabriel, make this man to understand the vision. 17 So he came near where I stood: and when he came, I was afraid, and fell upon my face: but he said unto me, Understand, O son of man: for at the time of the end shall be the vision. 18 Now as he was speaking with me, I was in a deep sleep on my face toward the ground: but he touched me, and set me upright. 19 And he said, Behold, I will make thee know what shall be in the last end of the indignation: for at the time appointed the end shall be. 20

The ram which thou sawest having two horns are the kings of Media and Persia. 21 And the rough goat is the king of Grecia: and the great horn that is between his eyes is the first king.

22 Now that being broken, whereas four stood up for it, four kingdoms shall stand up out of the nation, but not in his power.

23 And in the latter time of their kingdom, when the transgressors are come to the full, a king of fierce countenance, and understanding dark sentences, shall stand up. 24 And his power shall be mighty, but not by his own power: and he shall destroy wonderfully, and shall prosper, and practise, and shall destroy the mighty and the holy people.

25 And through his policy also he shall cause craft to prosper in his hand; and he shall magnify himself in his heart, and by peace shall destroy many: he shall also stand up against the Prince of princes; but he shall be broken without hand.

26 And the vision of the evening and the morning which was told is true: wherefore shut thou up the vision; for it shall be for many days (Daniel was prophesying hundreds of years before Antiochus IV rose to power - even before the first Greek Empire).

And I have not even got started yet on Chapter 11 and how, detail by detail, Antiochus IV fulfilled the history written in that chapter.

We cannot discard all the historical evidence (the mountain of evidence) just so that we can find a different explanation of the Revelation

(Well, there;s no law that says we cannot - but if we do so, what we come up with will confuse what the scriptures are saying).

Herod the Great is another type of Antichrist. But he most certainly does not fit the picture of the key type of the Antichrist given us in 2 Thessalonians 2. Antiochus IV does, though. 100%. Herod the Great fits the picture maybe 5%.​
I'm sorry, but Antiochus IV just doesn't fit. I know you REALLY want to believe he does. (Not sure why?)

Antiochus is not related to Alexander the Great or any of his generals. He didn't "come from" one of them. He's not the 4th in line of 4 king divided empire. There's not 7 of them in a succession. None of these guys had any contact with Jesus Christ, any of the apostles or prophets of the Old or New Testaments. They're not mentioned in Scripture. They had no contact with any of the prophets or anyone else. They didn't live in a time when Scripture was fulfilled.

The Old Testament is about the coming Messiah. The New Testament explains how Jesus fulfilled the Old Testament. All the stuff in Daniel and Revelation obviously is related to Christ. Nothing that happened during the Maccabee era is.

Galatians 3:17 describes 430 years between the end of the OT and the crucifixion / resurrection.

16 Now to Abraham and his seed were the promises made. He saith not, And to seeds, as of many; but as of one, And to thy seed, which is Christ.

(Note the context is how Jesus is the "seed of Abraham".

17 And this I say, that the covenant, that was confirmed before of God in Christ, the law, which was four hundred and thirty years after, cannot disannul, that it should make the promise of none effect.

(The covenant confirmed ...in Christ. That confirmation came at the resurrection. Which was 430 years after (the completion of the writing of the OT). Abraham was the commencement of the giving of that covenant. We know there's a lot more than 430 years between Abraham and Jesus. Now note what the next verse is about. It's about the inheritance coming by promise and not the law. The law didn't "disannul" the promise.)

18 For if the inheritance be of the law, it is no more of promise: but God gave it to Abraham by promise.

Nothing happened between the end of the OT and the beginning of the NT that God had any concern about in relation to the fulfillment of prophecy. And clearly the Maccabean era is between those two testaments. Scripture interprets Scripture. History does not interpret Scripture.

Pointing to Antiochus IV as the fulfillment of the prophecy in Daniel is an example of "look over here, not over there" because Rabbinic Judaism does not want people to recognize Jesus Christ is the Messiah prophesied in the book of Daniel.

The idea that Antiochus IV is the fulfillment of the prophecy of the book of Daniel? I'm not even sure where that came from in relation to Christian history? I'm guessing post Reformation. Because directly out of the Reformation the Roman Catholic Church (RCC) was stated to be "Babylon Mother of Harlots".

Clearly though Jesus talks about the prophecy fulfillment in Daniel to the disciples. And in the Greek, everything Jesus says in relation to that is aorist tense. (it's not future.) "When you see the abomination... " was stated in the present tense as "when you guys finally recognize this..." And the next instruction is to flee Jerusalem and the surrounding areas because the city's destruction is near. Jesus told them they would be the generation that sees this happen. And they were.

So if the "abomination that causes desolate" was "standing in the holy place" while the apostles were looking at Jesus standing in front of the temple; obviously that's can't be Antiochus IV.

Now go over to 2 Thessalonians 2 all that language about "son of perdition" and "man of sin" is also aorist (present) tense. The only thing that's future tense is in the verse when it talks about the revelation of that truth at the return of Christ. That sentence is future tense because the event being referenced is actually the return of Christ; not the revealing of the son of perdition. He was already revealed in Scripture as being Judas.

2 Thessalonians 2:
2 That ye be not soon shaken in mind, or be troubled, neither by spirit, nor by word, nor by letter as from us, as that the day of Christ is at hand.
("Day of Christ is at hand" is perfect tense. Meaning the commencement of "the day of Christ" has begun; although it's final end is yet in the future. The "Day of the Lord" / "Day of Christ" / "Judgement Day" commenced with the atonement. All those Christ atoned for faced "Judgement Day" within the context of the atonement.)

3 Let no man deceive you by any means: for, except there come a falling away first, and that man of sin be revealed, the son of perdition;
(All the verbs in this sentence are present tense. The "man of sin" is the "son of perdition". He's named in John 17:12 as Judas.)

4 Who opposeth and exalteth himself above all that is called God, or that is worshipped; so that he as God sitteth in the temple of God, shewing himself that he is God.
(All the verbs in this sentence are present tense.)

5 Remember ye not, that, when I was yet with you, I told you these things?
(Paul has already explained this to them.)

6 And now ye know what withholdeth that he might be revealed in his time.
(All the verbs in this sentence are present tense.)

7 For the mystery of iniquity doth already work: only he who now letteth will let, until he be taken out of the way.

8 And then shall that Wicked be revealed, whom the Lord shall consume with the spirit of his mouth, and shall destroy with the brightness of his coming:

(This is the only sentence in this whole passage who all the verbs are future tense. Note the context of the verse is about the second coming of Christ. Because the 2nd coming hasn't happened yet; the verbs in this sentence are future tense.)

9 Even him, whose coming is after the working of Satan with all power and signs and lying wonders,
(The verbs in this sentence are all present tense.)

10 And with all deceivableness of unrighteousness in them that perish; because they received not the love of the truth, that they might be saved.
(The verbs in this sentence are present tense.)

11 And for this cause God shall send them strong delusion, that they should believe a lie:
("God shall send" (strong delusion) is also future tense although "they should believe a lie" is present tense. The reason that verb is present tense is likely because verse 10 describes them as "perishing" = present tense.)

12 That they all might be damned who believed not the truth, but had pleasure in unrighteousness.
 
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