The latter Days: The type of the latter days

The Righterzpen

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Yes, it does mean that. Christ was in His glorified flesh-and-bones body the moment He awakened to life again in the tomb. Christ said the same thing to the two disciples on the road to Emmaus when He asked them, "Ought not Christ to have suffered these things, AND TO ENTER INTO HIS GLORY?" This was spoken by Christ that same day of His resurrection, when He had already by then "entered into His glory" in Luke 24:26.
Christ's body had yet to leave the planet. Read Luke 24:26. "Ought not Christ to have suffered these things, and to enter into his glory? "...to enter.." is active voice but infinitive mood. Meaning "...to enter into glory.." hadn't happened yet. That's why it's translated "..to enter..".
No, that passage is not necessarily referring to Pentecost. That is an assumption. We are clearly told that Christ breathed the Holy Spirit into the disciples that evening after His resurrection in John 20:22 when He said "Receive ye the Holy Spirit". By comparing this text with John 7:39, we can then conclude that Christ was already glorified at that point, because Christ was supposed to be glorified BEFORE the Holy Spirit was given.
You are making an assumption that this isn't referring to Pentecost.

The only thing that John 20:22 conveys is that Christ commanded that the Spirit would be sent. That didn't mean that it happened yet. We know this because of Pentecost.

And John 7:39 states that the Holy Spirit is not sent until Christ is glorified. He can't be glorified until ALL of him leaves the planet. The body did not ascend to heaven yet. The body was in the grave. Remember!

Compare this to Moses and Exodus 33:18-20. God's glory can not be shown on this earth without commencing the destruction of this cosmos. This is why He says to Moses: "You can't see my face and live." Verse 18; Moses specifically requests to see God's glory.

Compare this to Mathew 25:31-46 Matthew 25:31 specifically says: "When the Son of man shall come in his glory, and all the holy angels with him, then shall he sit upon the throne of his glory:
No, there was no delayed giving of the Holy Spirit until 50 days later at Pentecost. The Holy Spirit was given to the disciples then and there that evening. Pentecost taking place 50 days later was the moment when the miraculous sign gifts of the Holy Spirit were being poured out on all flesh. The Holy Spirit can be present and indwelling an individual without them manifesting miraculous sign gifts, which is the situation we have today also. Those sign gifts being manifested back then were only a visible proof to others that the Holy Spirit was ALREADY indwelling the disciples.
Except Scripture doesn't say "the miraculous sign gifts" were "poured out" it says "the Spirit was poured out". (Acts 2:17)
No, none of those died again. That has also been a common assumption without a single scripture to back up that theory, but this is an impossibility. The same power of the Holy Spirit that it takes to make a believer rise to life again is the same power that gives them immortality at that point. Just as it is impossible for the Holy Spirit to die, so it is impossible for one raised to life again by the Spirit's power to die again either.

Lazarus was never "transfigured". Christ raised Lazarus to live again in a glorified, incorruptible, immortal life, and he never died again. Humanity is appointed to die ONLY ONCE - never twice. The Hebrews 9:27-28 rule stands firm. "Neither CAN they die anymore..." Luke 20:36 says of the saints' resurrected state.
So where are these people now; seeing how you claim they walked earthly Jerusalem in glorified bodies but never ascended to heaven?
When I read in Revelation 20:5 about the "rest of the dead" (loipoi) who "lived again" as the "First resurrection" event, this word "loipoi" also appears in the definition for the word "remnant" in my Vine's dictionary, which is why I use that word . Also, as you have noted, it also means "remaining ones". Exactly so.
"Remnant" in this passage though means "all who remained" not a portion of who remained. We know that's the case because the entire context of the passage is the final judgement.
Those many Matthew 27:52-53 resurrected saints and those others like them did not ascend with Christ in Acts 1. Instead, that "multitude of captives" whom Christ brought out of the grave continued to REMAIN on earth to serve in the early church as pastors and teachers, evangelists, prophets, etc. (as in Ephesians 4:8-12).
So.... are these the pastors that are still preaching here on earth 2000 years later? If this is what you actually believe; you have some serious theological issues! No one on this earth today has been around for 2000 years!
The resurrected Matthew 27:52-53 saints were also the very same ones who had been made "alive" (by resurrection) and who were then "remaining" on earth in 1 Thessalonians 4:15&17. Paul assured the Thessalonians that these "remaining" ones would not precede their own dead loved ones (that were then in the grave) by ascending to heaven with Christ before they did. Those saints already resurrected would wait and "remain" on earth in their immortal condition until they could join the others in the next resurrection event when together they would meet the Lord in the air .
Compare 1 Thessalonians 4:15-17 to 1 Corinthians 15:51. This is talking about saints who are living on earth when Jesus does return. Paul is not saying that people living in his era won't ever die!

No one on this earth is in a glorified body. I don't know where you get this doctrine from, but it is absolutely unScriptural!
(And by the way, I am thoroughly pleased that you recognize the Mount of Olives as the crucifixion site of Golgotha. I don't run into many that know about this fact. The "place of the skull" I believe also has probable reference to the "head" of the Mount of Olives being its crest. That is what the word "ros" means in the OT. King David escaping over the crest of the Mount of Olives after Absalom took the city was said to be passing over "Ros" or the "head" of the Mount of Olives, where he worshipped God - 2 Kings15:32 LXX)
Interesting. This is possible; I don't know. I've never studied this as applied to David and Absalom.
 
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Christ's body had yet to leave the planet. Read Luke 24:26. "Ought not Christ to have suffered these things, and to enter into his glory? "...to enter.." is active voice but infinitive mood. Meaning "...to enter into glory.." hadn't happened yet. That's why it's translated "..to enter..".
Well, "to SUFFER" in that same sentence is also spoken of in the same sense, and Christ's crucifixion suffering and death had already taken place by then, of course. So, Christ's suffering and death immediately preceded Christ "entering into His glory" because they are linked together as contemporary events.

Christ had told the 12 disciples that "IN THE REGENERATION" (when He came back to life again) "WHEN the Son of man shall sit in the throne of his glory, ye also shall sit upon twelve thrones, judging the twelve tribes of Israel." This was a simultaneous set of events. The resurrected, regenerated Christ was given a kingdom and dominion of the high priesthood that morning after His resurrection-day ascension to God in heaven. The "throne of His glory" was Christ's high priesthood role being established in heaven's temple over the kingdom of God.that resurrection morning. His glorified body is what came out of the grave that day, with immortal and incorruptible characteristics.

And at the time Christ was arisen from the dead in His regeneration to life again, the 12 disciples were given authority to judge the 12 tribes of Israel by establishing the early church in Jerusalem, judging both practical and doctrinal matters of question in a church composed for the most part of Jewish tribal members to begin with, and expanding from there.
You are making an assumption that this isn't referring to Pentecost.

The only thing that John 20:22 conveys is that Christ commanded that the Spirit would be sent. That didn't mean that it happened yet.
Well, it was meant to mimic creation when God breathed into Adam's nostrils the breath of life, and man became a living soul. Was there a 50-day delay for Adam to become a "living soul"? In the same manner, Christ breathing on the disciples and telling them to receive the Holy Spirit did not mean a 50-day delay before they experienced the Holy Spirit indwelling them.
So where are these people now; seeing how you claim they walked earthly Jerusalem in glorified bodies but never ascended to heaven?
This particular forum won't allow me to post what happened to them. I'd have to put it in the "Controversial" category.
So.... are these the pastors that are still preaching here on earth 2000 years later? If this is what you actually believe; you have some serious theological issues! No one on this earth today has been around for 2000 years!
Nope, those pastors, etc. aren't here on earth anymore. But again, I'm not permitted to say what happened to them on this particular forum.

Compare 1 Thessalonians 4:15-17 to 1 Corinthians 15:51. This is talking about saints who are living on earth when Jesus does return. Paul is not saying that people living in his era won't ever die!

No one on this earth is in a glorified body. I don't know where you get this doctrine from, but it is absolutely unScriptural!
You're right that there is no one on earth today in a glorified body - not anymore. But again, this particular forum does not allow me to say what happened to those "alive and remaining" ones who had been made alive by resurrection and were still remaining on earth in Paul's days.
 
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The Righterzpen

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It's not possible that the soul of Christ ascended to HEAVEN at His death, because He told Mary "Touch me not, for I HAVE NOT YET ASCENDED TO MY FATHER" that morning after His resurrection (John 20:17). For Christ's soul to go to Paradise was not for Him to go to the Father in heaven yet, but to go to the same realm that the righteous dead were reserved BEFORE the risen, ascended Christ had made it possible from then on for the souls of the righteous to be "present with the Lord in heaven upon their death.
When Jesus said "It is finished." What was finished? When John 19:28 says "all things were now accomplished". What where the "all things" that were accomplished? If the last enemy to overcome is death; how is the atonement not complete when Jesus dies?
Yes, yes, yes...this John 12:31 verse is one of the key verses that tell us exactly when a LOOSED Satan was going to be cast out of heaven down to the earth, to again deceive the nations in great wrath. It says "NOW shall the prince of this world be cast out", because a LOOSED Satan was going to be cast out of heaven down to earth to deceive humanity immediately after Christ's ascension on His resurrection day had ended the war in heaven. At that point, Satan could no longer accuse the brethren, because of the blood of the Lamb providing full atonement for them.

This John 12:31 verse of a LOOSED Satan cast down to earth pairs up with John 14:30 at the Last Supper, when Christ told the disciples that "...the prince of this world cometh, and hath nothing in me." It was then time for the enemy's "hour", and Satan's coming "power of darkness" as Christ told the chief priests, the captains of the temple, and the elders who came to arrest Him (Luke 22:53).
The passage doesn't say he was "loosed" though; it just says he was cast out. You are trying to combine happenings that don't go together.

You haven't addressed the darkening of the sun. That specifically puts the binding of Satan at the crucifixion.
When we compare the time of Satan being bound to his being loosed afterward, Christ gives us proof of when that binding took place. The "strong man" had to "FIRST" be bound before his goods could be spoiled (Matthew 12:29). Satan was compared to the "strong man", and the "spoiling of his goods" was compared to Christ and His disciples casting out devils. This ability to cast out devils was proof positive that Satan had ALREADY "FIRST" been bound earlier in history. Satan the "strong man" losing his "goods" by devils being cast out of people followed afterward. The fact that Christ and His disciples were casting devils out of individuals only proved that the start of Satan's thousand-year binding had "FIRST" happened already, and this was even before Christ's earthly ministry had begun.
You got a problem with Matthew 12:29 though. "spoil his house" (referring to plundering the kingdom of Satan) is in the future tense.

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Mat 12:29 - Or else how can one enter into a strong man's house, and spoil his goods, except he first bind the strong man? and then he will spoil his house.
 
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The Righterzpen

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Well, "to SUFFER" in that same sentence is also spoken of in the same sense, and Christ's crucifixion suffering and death had already taken place by then, of course. So, Christ's suffering and death immediately preceded Christ "entering into His glory" because they are linked together as contemporary events.
Ok, then let's apply the same rule to both verbs. despite "to suffer" is translated as "to have suffered" and "to enter" is not translated "to have entered". We could argue that "infinitive mood" is speaking of something outside of time. Which would make the whole passage consistent with "to suffer" (in time) but "to enter" (had not transpired in human time yet).
Christ had told the 12 disciples that "IN THE REGENERATION" (when He came back to life again) "WHEN the Son of man shall sit in the throne of his glory, ye also shall sit upon twelve thrones, judging the twelve tribes of Israel." This was a simultaneous set of events. The resurrected, regenerated Christ was given a kingdom and dominion of the high priesthood that morning after His resurrection-day ascension to God in heaven. The "throne of His glory" was Christ's high priesthood role being established in heaven's temple over the kingdom of God.that resurrection morning. His glorified body is what came out of the grave that day, with immortal and incorruptible characteristics.
Except you're ignoring the context of Matthew 25. Verse 46: And these shall go away (future tense) into everlasting punishment: but the righteous into life eternal. The context is clearly the end of time.

You're also not consistent with what Exodus 33 says about living people being able to see God's glory.
Well, it was meant to mimic creation when God breathed into Adam's nostrils the breath of life, and man became a living soul. Was there a 50-day delay for Adam to become a "living soul"? In the same manner, Christ breathing on the disciples and telling them to receive the Holy Spirit did not mean a 50-day delay before they experienced the Holy Spirit indwelling them.
This is another assumption on your part. How do you know Adam didn't fall 50 days after he was created and thus the "restoration" is in reverse.
This particular forum won't allow me to post what happened to them. I'd have to put it in the "Controversial" category.
Nope, those pastors, etc. aren't here on earth anymore. But again, I'm not permitted to say what happened to them on this particular forum.
Yet you connect these to 1 Thessalonians 4:15-17. So unless you are going to claim Christ returned once already; you're inconsistent with your own eschatology.
 
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When Jesus said "It is finished." What was finished? When John 19:28 says "all things were now accomplished". What where the "all things" that were accomplished? If the last enemy to overcome is death; how is the atonement not complete when Jesus dies?
The part of atonement that was finished at that point on the cross was the conclusion of the perfect sacrifice for sin. Christ's body was completely drained of blood poured out at the foot of the cross by the spear opening his side, just as any sacrificial animal's blood used to be poured out at the base of the altar.

But it was not enough for that perfect blood sacrifice to be made. It ALSO had to be APPLIED on the mercy seat and ACCEPTED by God. Christ's life-blood had to be taken by Himself as an anointed, living, perfect high priest and applied to heaven's mercy seat and accepted by God on our behalf. This was the ultimate fulfillment pictured by the Old Covenant high priest who entered within the veil to sprinkle the blood sacrifice on the mercy seat in the Holy of Holies on the Day of Atonement. Once that sprinkled blood was applied, the sign showing the people that the blood of Atonement that year was accepted by God was that the high priest was able to emerge alive from the Holy of Holies.

Christ was called both the "Just" and also "the Justifier" (Romans 3:26). His sacrifice as "The Just One" was perfect, and He Himself became the perfect High Priest as well who could be our Justifier before God. He had to play both parts perfectly.
The passage doesn't say he was "loosed" though; it just says he was cast out. You are trying to combine happenings that don't go together.

You haven't addressed the darkening of the sun. That specifically puts the binding of Satan at the crucifixion.
Scripture informs us what Satan being "loosed" was. His "binding" by that chain was composed of his deception of the nations being put on hold for a literal thousand years. Therefore, Satan's "loosing" from that chain was that his deception of the nations on earth could once again be practiced when that thousan-year period had expired. When Satan lost his ability to accuse the brethren in heaven after Christ's final ascension in AD 33, he and his angels were cast down to earth and began to cause as much deceptive damage as he could in that "short time" he had left to operate. That is why John 12:12 was warning his readers at the time; that a wrathful Satan was in full attack mode in their days.

Scripture also informs us that this "short time" of Satan being cast down to earth would take place once that millennium had FINISHED. Since Satan was in full operation mode again for a "short time" as John was writing Revelation (as in Revelation 12:12), this lets us know that the millennium had already expired by then.

So, the thousand-year binding of Satan's deception ENDED at Christ's resurrection-day ascension. An easy way to remember this is that the millennium ENDED when Christ ASCENDED, and the Devil DESCENDED. Why shouldn't the sun have darkened at Christ's crucifixion? The Prince of darkness was soon to be cast out of heaven back to earth for his "little season" of release from his millennial chain.
You got a problem with Matthew 12:29 though. "spoil his house" (referring to plundering the kingdom of Satan) is in the future tense.
But that's the very point I'm making. the "spoiling his house" was going on during Christ's ministry, as manifested by Christ and His disciples casting out devils. Since this activity of "spoiling" was to take place in the FUTURE after the "strong man" was bound FIRST, then this proves that Satan had already been bound, even before Christ's earthly ministry. That's because the "spoiling" which was then taking place in Christ's days on earth was a result of the earlier "binding" of the "strong man".
You're also not consistent with what Exodus 33 says about living people being able to see God's glory.
I agree, it's true that no person in his natural state can look upon God the Father and survive. Our God after all is called "a consuming fire", with a stream of fire coming out from before Him, as in Daniel 7:9-10. But I also know this, that the resurrected body of Christ was able to take on "another form" - a "hetera morphe" (as in Mark 16:12). So why could not the resurrected, glorified Christ have adopted a form which would be "toned down" enough so that (for those 40 days while He was on earth) the disciples could see Him face-to-face without harm? We also know that Paul said in 1 Corinthians 15:8 that he was allowed to see the glorified, ascended Christ on the road to Damascus (while those men around him were shielded from seeing Jesus, but did hear the voice from heaven.) God has often granted selective revelation to different individuals in this manner.
This is another assumption on your part. How do you know Adam didn't fall 50 days after he was created and thus the "restoration" is in reverse.
Adam's fall in the Garden of Eden was a mirror image in reverse of our redemption by Christ as the "second Adam". Adam was called "the figure of him that was to come" in Romans 5:14. Christ was about 36-1/2 years old at His crucifixion death on our behalf, and I propose that Adam and Eve remained sinless for the same approximate 36-1/2 years in the Garden of Eden before they fell into sin and death passed upon all men after that. No children were conceived during that time, because God "greatly multiplied" Eve's conception after the Fall compared to how often she could conceive children before the Fall.

Yet you connect these to 1 Thessalonians 4:15-17. So unless you are going to claim Christ returned once already; you're inconsistent with your own eschatology.
As to the Matthew 27:52-53 saints and other resurrected saints like them being the "alive and remaining" ones Paul wrote about in 1 Thess. 4 that were still around in his days (but who aren't around anymore today)...let's just say that my eschatology is totally consistent.
 
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The Righterzpen

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The part of atonement that was finished at that point on the cross was the conclusion of the perfect sacrifice for sin. Christ's body was completely drained of blood poured out at the foot of the cross by the spear opening his side, just as any sacrificial animal's blood used to be poured out at the base of the altar.
Well, a body still subject to gravity; anything below where the spear stabbed his side isn't going to drain. Not sure how much you know about forensics, but it's actually rather difficult to drain all the blood out of a a body. Thus animals; they slit the throat and hang them upside down. Nothing in Scripture about hanging Jesus upside down to drain all his blood.

Matter of fact, male humans that die in an upright position; the first place blood will pool is.....; (as it drains down the femoral artery into the feet). But, minor detail about corpses and forensics.

I've heard other people claim Jesus "shed all his blood" that when he rose from the dead he "had no blood" because "flesh and blood can't inherit the Kingdom of God".

Problem though is if "the life is in the blood"; one can't be "raised to life" with no blood. Jesus was not raised a zombie. All that runs body systems has to have blood in order to be considered "alive". Heat is generated by burning fuel; which consuming food is necessary to that end. (Thus Jesus did still eat after rising from the dead. (Of which I'm sure he still went to the bathroom too. Can't eat and not excrete. It's one of the 13 "life processes". The only "life process" not required to maintain life is reproduction.)

Yet you think the disciples would have noticed if he wasn't breathing, wasn't warm and didn't have a pulse!
But it was not enough for that perfect blood sacrifice to be made. It ALSO had to be APPLIED on the mercy seat and ACCEPTED by God. Christ's life-blood had to be taken by Himself as an anointed, living, perfect high priest and applied to heaven's mercy seat and accepted by God on our behalf. This was the ultimate fulfillment of when the Old Covenant high priest used to enter within the veil to sprinkle the blood sacrifice on the mercy seat in the Holy of Holies on the Day of Atonement. Once that sprinkled blood was applied, the token showing the people that the blood of Atonement that year was accepted by God was that the high priest was able to emerge alive from the Holy of Holies.
And considering Jesus's body never left the earth; he didn't materially take his blood into heaven to pour out on the mercy seat. All the OT ceremonies are metaphoric representations of spiritual truth. So thus the atonement would not have been complete if the sacrifice had yet to be accepted; thus "It is finished." would have meant nothing.
Scripture informs us what Satan being "loosed" was. His "binding" by that chain was composed of his deception of the nations being put on hold for a literal thousand years.
So you admit Satan's binding was "with a chain". Yet Revelation 9 talks about the darkening of the sun accompanying this action. (Which you still haven't addressed.)

There's only two events that talk about the sun in the context of "darkening"
1. it's darkened; and the moon gives no light. Clearly this happened at the crucifixion. Scripture tells us that!
2. it's "black as sackcloth of hair"; and the moon is blood red. That language is always accompanied by a description of the destruction of the cosmos.
Therefore, Satan's "loosing" from that chain was that his deception of the nations on earth could once again be practiced when that thousand years had expired.
What happened to Israel between Solomon's temple and the crucifixion? (You have the Assyrians and then the Babylonians.) Why does God say these people went into captivity? (Because they wouldn't hearken to Him.) So if Satan is "bound" starting with Solomon's temple; well, it was a miserable failure because Israel committed all kinds of sin and were judged for it.
When Satan lost his ability to accuse the brethren in heaven after Christ's final ascension in AD 33, he and his angels were cast down to earth and began to cause as much deceptive damage as he could in that "short time" he had left to operate.
And Scripture is very clear. Satan is cast out of heaven the last day Jesus leaves the temple. He has "a short time" (3 days and 3 nights) and is bound at the point where the atonement is coming to a close.

The intent of Satan is to prevent the atonement. Because if he stops the atonement; what happens? (No flesh is saved.) He has "a short time" BEFORE he's bound.
he and his angels were cast down to earth and began to cause as much deceptive damage as he could in that "short time" he had left to operate. That is why John 12:12 was warning his readers at the time; that a wrathful Satan was on the attack in their days.
Nothing in these passages state Satan is cast out at the end of the millennium.
Matter of fact; 2 Peter 2:4 states that the disobedient angels were "delivered into chains of darkness" (to be reserved unto judgment) from the time of the flood!

Note the angel that descends only grabs Satan; who's still "on the loose" at that time.
Which makes sense because the judgement of the flood is a reflection of the commencement of Judgement as it first applies to the elect in the context of the atonement and then to the rest of humanity at the end of time.
So, the thousand-year binding of Satan's deception ENDED at Christ's resurrection-day ascension. An easy way to remember this is that the millennium ENDED when Christ ASCENDED, and the Devil DESCENDED. Why shouldn't the sun have darkened at Christ's crucifixion? The Prince of darkness was soon to be cast out of heaven back to earth for his "little season" of release from his millennial chain.

But that's the very point I'm making. the "spoiling his house" was going on during Christ's ministry, as manifested by Christ and His disciples casting out devils. Since this activity of "spoiling" was to take place in the FUTURE after the "strong man" was bound FIRST, then this proves that Satan had already been bound, even before Christ's earthly ministry, because that "spoiling" which was then taking place in Christ's days on earth was a result of the earlier "binding" of the "strong man".
So let's get this strait.
1. You claim Satan is bound from Solomon's temple to the crucifixion.
2. Yet Jesus talks about "plundering the house" is still future tense and the point that Jesus makes this statement is at the end of the time Satan is bound.
3 Jesus makes this (future tense) statement about the plundering of Satan's house toward the end of Jesus's ministry.

And what does it mean that the house is plundered? Why would God wait until the end of the 1000 years to plunder the house? Why not start that at the beginning of the 1000 years?
So, the thousand-year binding of Satan's deception ENDED at Christ's resurrection-day ascension. An easy way to remember this is that the millennium ENDED when Christ ASCENDED, and the Devil DESCENDED. Why shouldn't the sun have darkened at Christ's crucifixion? The Prince of darkness was soon to be cast out of heaven back to earth for his "little season" of release from his millennial chain.
John 12; Satan is kicked out of heaven 3 days before the crucifixion. Jesus doesn't ascend until 53 days later.

The "darkening of the sun" happens at the beginning of Satan being chained though. AFTER he'd already been kicked out of heaven.

You have this all backwards.
I agree, it's true that no person in his natural state can look upon God the Father and survive. Our God after all is called "a consuming fire", with a stream of fire coming out from before Him, as in Daniel 7:9-10.
Moses wasn't talking to the Father though; he was talking to the Son. "The Lord", "Jehovah", "The Great I Am". That's all the 2nd person of the Trinity. That's the Son, it's not the Father. The only intercessor for humanity is the Son. The Father doesn't address humanity personally.

Thus the whole scenario of finding one worthy to open the scroll. The Son, at times is called "the Ancient of Days" too.
But I also know this, that the resurrected body of Christ was able to take on "another form" - a "hetera morphe" (as in Mark 16:12). So why could not the resurrected, glorified Christ have adopted a form which would be "toned down" enough so that (for those 40 days while He was on earth) the disciples could see Him face-to-face without harm?
The disciples weren't the only ones who saw Jesus post resurrection though. And this idea of having to "tone down" God's glory isn't supported anywhere in Scripture. A corrupted cosmos can not stand in the presence of God's glory. It's just that simple.

Why do you think the cosmos needs to be recreated when Christ returns?
We also know that Paul said in 1 Corinthians 15:8 that he was allowed to see the glorified, ascended Christ on the road to Damascus (while those men around him were shielded from seeing Jesus, but did hear the voice from heaven.) God has often granted selective revelation to different individuals in this manner.
This passage does not say that Paul saw Jesus glorified. It only says that he saw him, just as the others had also seen him.

Now Paul may have seen something similar to the transfiguration. (Peter, James and John saw that and still lived.) But that wasn't the full power of God's glory. It was probably similar to the visions prophets in the OT had (or John in Revelation; or Paul talking about being in Paradise) "in spirit or body" - he said he couldn't tell.
As to the Matthew 27:52-53 saints and other resurrected saints like them being the "alive and remaining" ones Paul wrote about in 1 Thess. 4 that were still around in his days - but who aren't around anymore today...let's just say that my eschatology is totally consistent.
Your assertion though is that these resurrected saints are going to be present until the fulfillment of 1 Thessalonians 4:15-17. That passage though it talking about the 2nd coming of Christ. So if these raised saints are on the earth at the 2nd coming of Christ; where'd they go in the mean time; since you state they are not currently here.
 
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The Bible didn't tell us why, so whatever I say here is my opinion.

My view is that the Sovereign God reserves the right to show mercy on whom (be it an individual or nation) he pleases (Exodus 33:19). Remember the example of the woman of Canaan (a Gentile) that besought Jesus for her daughter. The Lord told her that it was not right to give the children's food to dogs but she responded that even dogs eat the crumbs that fell from the table (Matt 15:22-28). Subsequently, Jesus bid her as she desired.

Scattered throughout the OT and NT are examples of Gentiles receiving grace and favour from God long before the due season - the advent of the church. Who can discern God's counsel?
He shows mercy on whomsoever believes His Word. Jesus is the Word of God (John 3:13-21). But believing yet not abiding will not produce the fruit of the Spirit in the believer either - it will produce lawlessness. And there are two aspects to lawlessness: The works of the flesh, and a lack of love for the brethren evidenced by actions when a brother or sister needs help. So sexual immorality etc is included in lawlessness.
 
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3 Resurrections

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I've heard other people claim Jesus "shed all his blood" that when he rose from the dead he "had no blood" because "flesh and blood can't inherit the Kingdom of God".
I've heard that too, but I think they might be misapplying that verse a bit. Paul in 1 Corinthians 15:50 I believe was addressing the then-current debate of his day - that the kingdom of God was not really meat and drink (physical ordinances under the OC) but instead was righteousness, and peace, and joy in the Holy Ghost (spiritual relationships with God). Neither was the kingdom of God inherited through a natural descent by flesh and blood through the genealogy of Abraham, but the inheritance in the kingdom of God would be through faith along with faithful Abraham. These would be the "seed" composing the true family of God and His kingdom. The "flesh" (ethnic relationship to Abraham) would profit nothing when it came to entering the kingdom of God.
And considering Jesus's body never left the earth; he didn't materially take his blood into heaven to pour out on the mercy seat. All the OT ceremonies are metaphoric representations of spiritual truth. So thus the atonement would not have been complete if the sacrifice had yet to be accepted; thus "It is finished." would have meant nothing.
Well, yes, Hebrews 9:12-14, 24 tells us that Christ did that very thing in the "true tabernacle" in heaven that was not made with hands. You are spot on that all the OT ceremonies on earth were meant to represent heavenly things. And it's true that the atonement would not have been complete until Christ had sprinkled his blood in that true tabernacle in heaven and had that sacrifice accepted by God.

But that doesn't mean "It is finished" meant nothing. That was the first finished part of Christ becoming the perfect sacrifice. After that, Christ then had to play the part of the perfect high priest by offering that finished perfect sacrifice in heaven's temple. And He did this by rising from the dead and ascending to the Father just after He spoke with Mary that morning in John 20:17. Christ then exited the holy place in heaven's temple and returned to earth to encounter His disciples so that they would know that the perfect atonement sacrifice had been accepted by God. It all fulfilled the process for the Day of Atonement rituals laid out in Leviticus 16.
The intent of Satan is to prevent the atonement. Because if he stops the atonement; what happens? (No flesh is saved.) He has "a short time" BEFORE he's bound.
I'm afraid you have that upside down. Scripture says that AFTER Satan is RELEASED from his thousand years of being bound, he was to be given a "little season" of time to operate (Revelation 20:3). That was the very same "short time" of Satan's activity on earth which John wrote had already begun as of the time he was writing Revelation (Revelation 12:12).
So let's get this strait.
1. You claim Satan is bound from Solomon's temple to the crucifixion.
2. Yet Jesus talks about "plundering the house" is still future tense and the point that Jesus makes this statement is at the end of the time Satan is bound.
3 Jesus makes this (future tense) statement about the plundering of Satan's house toward the end of Jesus's ministry.

And what does it mean that the house is plundered? Why would God wait until the end of the 1000 years to plunder the house? Why not start that at the beginning of the 1000 years?
Actually, God did ramp up that "plundering" process of Satan's "goods" at the millennium's beginning with the founding stone of Solomon's temple being laid down in 968 / 967 BC. Think of all the examples of God working among the nations beginning with that time and forward. The burgeoning trade that Solomon developed with the nations spread the knowledge of Israel's God further among the nations. Also, every single nation who sent an ambassador with a woman to be included in Solomon's 1,000 wives and concubines had heard of the glory of Solomon's kingdom and the God of Israel. This meant that in spite of Solomon's hedonism and eventual decline into idolatry, the progress of God's kingdom was still advancing by the nations becoming acquainted with the God of Israel's reputation. Satan's deception of the nations was being bound in this manner in spite of Solomon's lack of faithfulness - even because of it.

Jonah successfully witnessing to Nineveh was another example.

Even when Israel apostatized and was scattered into exile among all the nations, the reputation of the God of Israel punishing His own people for their disobedience went along with them. Think of the humbled Nebuchadnezzar's broadcasted testimony to every one of the nations under His reign of how God had brought Him down to the level of a brute animal and then raised him up again. King Darius also gave a very public testimony to every nation under his control of the power of Daniel's God. Cyrus's decree to all the nations did the same by acknowledging that God had raised him up as King in order to rebuild God's temple and let the Israelites return home to their nation.

Even a nameless little captive maid in Naaman's household participated in binding Satan's deception. She had only to utter the words "Would God my lord were with the prophet at Samaria, for he would cure him of his leprosy". Naaman the captain was consequently healed and became a fervent convert to the God of Israel: a potent witness for Him in the court at the king's own right hand.

Do I need to keep going? Alexander the Great was enlightened by the priests who interpreted Daniel's visions with regard to Alexander as being the "notable horn" God had designed to head up the Greek kingdom.

Antiochus Epiphanes IV himself with all his wickedness and cruelty towards the Israelites and their religion was humbled before his death, and acknowledged that his vile diseases were a just punishment for his harsh treatment of God's people.

The temple at Jerusalem for many, many years was given gifts of great value by the surrounding nations and their kings and dignitaries. It became a repository of great wealth that was finally plundered in the AD 66-70 period. All of these gifts were a result of the nations hearing about the God of Israel. Judaism was granted Roman favors that other nations did not receive. Ignorance of the God of Israel was being decreased among all nations by the fame of Jerusalem and the OT physical temple worship system God had designed for that literal thousand-year millennium.

That millennium "expired" with Christ at His AD 33 ascension becoming the True foundation stone of the True spiritual temple not made with hands. The millennium was supposed to end with the "First resurrection", at which time Satan was also loosed for a "short time" and a "little season" to deceive the nations once again before his destruction.

John 12; Satan is kicked out of heaven 3 days before the crucifixion. Jesus doesn't ascend until 53 days later.
Your timing is off here. Satan was kicked out of heaven after the shed blood of the Lamb applied in heaven's temple had cancelled any accusation Satan could bring against the brethren. Remember, it took this shed blood of the Lamb to defeat Satan's accusations in Revelation 12:11. This casting out Satan and his devils happened at Christ's resurrection-day ascension - not with Christ's Act 1 ascension which came 40 days later.
The disciples weren't the only ones who saw Jesus post resurrection though. And this idea of having to "tone down" God's glory isn't supported anywhere in Scripture.
Perhaps I used a bad choice of words. I think you do agree, though, that the transfiguration on the Mount was a change of form which Christ manifested for those chosen disciples to view, so this was something Christ could do at His own volition, even before His death and resurrection. It was also a changed form of the glorified, resurrected Christ which John saw in his visions for Revelation, and which Stephen saw before his martyrdom. So I think it is not only possible but a necessity that the glorified, resurrected Christ shielded the disciples from viewing His full glory during those 40 days on earth - for their protection. And yes, we do have many examples of such "shielding" of individuals in scripture. Do you need a list?
Your assertion though is that these resurrected saints are going to be present until the fulfillment of 1 Thessalonians 4:15-17. That passage though it talking about the 2nd coming of Christ. So if these raised saints are on the earth at the 2nd coming of Christ; where'd they go in the mean time; since you state they are not currently here.
As for the resurrected, glorified Matthew 27:52-53 saints, my answer for what happened to them is found in my username, which I have specifically chosen for a reason. I can't discuss that on this particular forum, however. It would have to be posted in the "Controversial Christian Theology" forum.
 
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Trivalee

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He shows mercy on whomsoever believes His Word. Jesus is the Word of God (John 3:13-21). But believing yet not abiding will not produce the fruit of the Spirit in the believer either - it will produce lawlessness. And there are two aspects to lawlessness: The works of the flesh, and a lack of love for the brethren evidenced by actions when a brother or sister needs help. So sexual immorality etc is included in lawlessness.
Very true.
 
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anetazo

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Daniel 7:7 to7:27. Fourth beast. This is the one world religious system of revelation chapter 13. Satan as antichrist will be world leader. He comes in peacefully. No war horse. The little horn is satan. I know what I'm talking about. I'm Gods Elect. God is using satan to test people near future. The devil will come 6th trump, Jerusalem, in his role as antichrist. He's role actor. It will be spirtual battlefield. Its words, ideas and concepts. Ephesians chapter 6. Without gospel armory on, majority will worship antichrist. They're biblically illiterate. Listening to traditions of men is the worse thing to do. It poisons your mind. Many churches have failed in their capacity. Majority of people are not prepared for antichrist. The rapture theory is false doctrine. I documented this. Revelation chapter 13, whole world will worship, except the saints, that's God's Elect. The election have gospel armory on. How many churches teach ephesians chapter 6. Or who kenites are or parable of fig tree. You must know the seals and trumps. Sadly, many churches don't teach it. God is testing people, using satan. Majority will flunk out.
 
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