Sarcalogos Deus
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- Jan 1, 2010
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It doesn't matter if you had a signed document by the POTUS saying we are to baptize infants. Neither he, nor the ones you listed above would be correct. Scripture reveals belief in Christ is a necessity prerequisite for baptism. "If thou believest, thou mayest."
Even the Catholic Bible, the Douay Rheims, states that belief is a prerequisite. So, since belief is a prerequisite to baptism as the Douay Rheims states, it stands to reason that neither Paul, nor Peter would have baptized anyone without that one first asserting that he or she indeed believed in Christ.
And infants certainly have no way of telling us what it is they believe until they first learn to talk.
There were no infants baptized in those households mentioned in the Bible.
Honestly, I kinda expected this answer, since it's the answer I've gotten from Protestants who either don't know the history or know straight from the get-go that history is not on their side on this issue.
So let's try something, forget for a moment whether infant baptism is right or wrong. Show me how it could be possible for infant baptism to have spread throughout the entire Roman Empire just 30-40 years after the last Apostle, John, died. Now also think back for a moment to the 80's. Were Baptist churches radically different in doctrine in the 80's than they are now?
So, how could infant baptism have spread so quickly and become universally accepted in that short time, before the invention of any rapid form of communication, unless it was originally practiced by the Apostles?
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