- Oct 28, 2006
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Right. Exactly. You catch on very quickly. My affirmation of a scholar's credentials and allowing them a place at the table of discussion for rational analysis and deliberation over their arguments doesn't mean I'm automatically obligated to agree with any of them; being qualified is one thing, but being right---or knowing one is right---or quite another issue altogether, Ms. Kylie.So you claim it is ridiculous, even though there are Biblical scholars who you accept as valid who claim otherwise.
You're right. When doing science, we don't invoke religious faith------but we do invoke trust, and trust in second hand data and evidence, and at times even authority, is a part of Science.I'm simply pointing out that no one invokes faith when trying to determine the amount of energy in subatomic particles when they do tests in particle accelerators, for example. Faith is never invoked, only evidence.
You might better consider that Christian faith as defined in the Bible has to have a trust element based on some evidence as a component of the willingness to believe. It doesn't happen either by magic fiat or by wishful thinking.
Are you familiar with the Gettier Problem? Are you familiar with the term, Gestalt? Are you aware that not everything in religion can be merely chalked up to the onset of "apophenia"? Are you aware than many phenomena, particularly from the past, are open to various interpretations within the fields of Archaeology and History? Are you aware of the concept of "incomplete evidence"?Then why not simply present the evidence and let it speak for itself?
I would hazard a guess that it's because the evidence does not speak for itself. Every time I've seen a believer present evidence for their faith being true, I've found that it does not show one particular interpretation is true. It could be consistent with many different interpretations, and the believer decides that it must apply to their particular faith because they've already decided that their faith is true. They're basically saying, "Can this evidence be used to support my faith? Yes it can, even though it can also support other interpretations that are inconsistent with my faith. However, since I want to believe that my faith is correct, I'll conclude that the evidence supports my faith because one of the many interpretations of that evidence is supportive of my faith."
Then stick with the physical sciences, Kylie, because you'll never make it as a Historian if that's all you'll accept as "evidence.For me, I think it's rather simple.
If the evidence can be tested and verified and it passes such testing, then I'll accept it as valid evidence.
That's a choice you'll have to make. It won't be an historically educated choice, but it'll be a choice nevertheless.I won't accept that evidence as indicating that one particular point of view is correct if that evidence is consistent with other points of view.
Yeah, I did. I'll give you that point.You're the one who brought up the topic of bathroom breaks...
That's the thing: I DON'T know.
As I pointed out, Biblcal scholars have claimed that the best we can say about Jesus with any degree of certainty is that he was baptised and then crucified. (Given the lack of contemporary accounts, I personally wouldn't even go that far, but let's work on that basis for the purposes of this discussion.)
From what the scholars say, I'm not aware of any reliable evidence that Jesus had disciples, let along what their names were or what they did. SO I don't claim to know that Jesus had disciples.
That was my point. The claim about Jesus having followers because he performed miracles is an extraordinary one, and as such, requires extraordinary evidence. I have not seen such evidence, and as far as I can tell, such evidence does not exist.
Which scholars agree with you that the claim, "Jesus had followers like Peter," should be categorized as an extraordinary claim?????
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