Alright, I am confused...does this mean we are not done with the discussion? Apparently not.
Jonno, I never used the word remember as an argument. I don't think it is meant in the sense of recall in this passage. I stated that earlier. I think it is used in the sense of observe, much the way it is used in other cases like this.
It is true Jonno that the account does not state the timing, which argument is perhaps a stronger one than was so far put forth. (stronger say than the notion that all of them were holy. )
But you all are still making the assumption that the Genesis account was written AFTER the exodus one. What evidence is there for that? And the language at the end of the commandment does seem to parallel the Genesis account quite well. So since it exists in both books, we have a few options.
a. Exodus was written first, and a comment was added in Genesis
b. Genesis was written first and quoted in the exodus
If you suggest Exodus was, what evidence is there fore reversing it other than silence on the question during parts of scripture?
It seems less likely to me that he would write a commentary note on the creation account and then seemingly quote that commentary note. So the only option you have is that he wrote exodus first, but the language even in that account sounds like it is referring to generally known facts...which would be generally known if he wrote Genesis first. But if Exodus was the first one, why would he mention the hallowing and blessing? Because if that was the case, THIS WAS the hallowing and blessing, or perhaps it was a day or two ago. That doesn't seem to fit as well to me as that He did it in Genesis first. Why would you say...I am making a holy Sabbath...because I made it holy. That is redundant. It seems are more likely he is referring to the event in Genesis.
Now Jonno, the idea that He blessed and hallowed it in foreknowledge...maybe. But don't you think Adam might have asked him about it? If God said that a day was something special, I would ask Him. So it is a possibility, but again, what evidence is there in the text other than silence?
So far the only evidence you have presented is NON-evidence in the form of no mention before Exodus, though of course some see the one in the garden as a mention. To me it is simply interpretation on your part. So let me state it this way.
If it did happen that way, it wouldn't particularly bother me. But I just don't see compelling evidence in non-statements. Which is why I have said several times I don't see why you feel free to interpret events and orders of events with the slimmest evidence.
Perhaps better evidence would be to look at the statements I posted earlier from Paul.
RO 5:12 Therefore, just as sin entered the world through one man, and death through sin, and in this way death came to all men, because all sinned-- 13 for before the law was given, sin was in the world. But sin is not taken into account when there is no law. 14 Nevertheless, death reigned from the time of Adam to the time of Moses, even over those who did not sin by breaking a command, as did Adam, who was a pattern of the one to come.
GAL 3:15 Brothers, let me take an example from everyday life. Just as no one can set aside or add to a human covenant that has been duly established, so it is in this case. 16 The promises were spoken to Abraham and to his seed. The Scripture does not say "and to seeds," meaning many people, but "and to your seed," meaning one person, who is Christ. 17 What I mean is this: The law, introduced 430 years later, does not set aside the covenant previously established by God and thus do away with the promise. 18 For if the inheritance depends on the law, then it no longer depends on a promise; but God in his grace gave it to Abraham through a promise.
Here we see Paul essentially saying the law was given 430 years after Abraham. Now of course, we also know his math is probably wrong, which would be interesting for the EGW thread, but he clearly believed that it was not made as explicit before Sinai.
In the Romans one he even goes so far as to say before that people did not sin by breaking a commandment.
And as I suggested before, the commandment WAS NOT as explicit. But for that matter, he seems to suggest that NONE of them were. So perhaps you are misunderstanding my view.
I don't think any of the commands given at Sinai were new. But i don't think they were given in rigid command form either. I think they were principles of God's kingdom that people knew by being with God. And I would include the Sabbath in that based on the account in Genesis. Now if it was new, and your speculations are right, it really doesn't bother my view of it. Because the command was not there explicitly before anyway. And according to Paul, neither were the others.
But since it is mentioned in Genesis, and since non-evidence is not convincing to me, I believe that, like the other commands which they had some understanding of, despite not receiving a hard command, they had knowledge of this one too. In fact, you are asking for evidence on the Sabbath question that you aren ot on the others? Are all of the others given in command form before this? Are all of them even referenced? I am trying to recall instances where God punished people for adultery in Genesis or early exodus. You have the lying of the Hebrew midwives, which was seemingly congratulated. And Abraham twice lied, and was BLESSED for it in Egypt. Now the people who were wronged by Abraham pointed out the injustice, but you don't see God enforcing some hard handed law. The only one that seems overly defined was Murder, which was outlined somewhat in the Cain case (and appeared to be familiar to him already) and codified to some degree in Genesis 9.
And finally, Payattention, I really don't get your view at all that sin necessitated the Sabbath. It is a day to spend with God that He gave to the inhabitants of a new planet. If He happens to make it on the day which commemorates the finishing of the creation, (and we all agree He did, at one time or another) why is sin necessary for that? You say it was for man, not for God, but then you make it sound as though man cannot benefit from a day with God unless he is busy slaving away. It is clear from the account that they had some duties, rigorous or not, in the garden. The Sabbath, if it was a special day with God each week, would simply be a more focused day with Him. Yes, it is obvious that they talked other days. In the same way that we, in limited scope, talk through prayer, focus on God etc. other days of the week, but give more time to Him on Sabbath. Even if we were not in a sinful world it might be that there would be things that we were doing that would not be totally focused on God every minute of every day.
So again, my problem is with your method and conclusions. If you want to speculate that it was given in a certain order, that is fine. But you can't expect us all to accept it with NO data as evidence.
And moreoever, you might want to explain how the Sabbath is different, if NONE of the commands had been given yet according to Paul.
and Jonno, Paul himself seems to indicate that adulterers, thieves, homosexual offenders, etc. can be sanctified and cleaned, so why would we say they cannot be saved either? I assume you are saying that some who are OVER zealous would say this? True, but an argument based on the most irrational in the community is not really proving anytning to the rest of us. If you want to say it is different, then perhaps it is different in the sense that it does not fall under Paul's description of those who not having the law, keep it in Romans. Ie. it is not the type of thing that would be intuitively known, born out by the conscience, etc. In that regard it is different, because it is not one that everyone would be aware to keep it.
Tempting eve....ok...unless you are going with the old idea that Eve and the serpent had sex, I really think there must have been SOME conversation going on there. And whether the snake could use telepathy, that again would be reading in something that is not stated.