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A simple yes or no would've worked, but okay.
Jesus Himself, is the Logos, the Word.
You are aware that the Eucharist being instituted took place decades before John's Gospel was recorded?
So if that's your concern then all New Testament writings were even further into the future than the institution of the Eucharist.
Jesus was referring to Himself and His presence in the Eucharist.
As we all know? That's a bit presumptuous on your part since that's literally what he said. Not only is that what He said but it's also clear that's what He said based on the response of those hearing in attendance.
The Jews therefore strove among themselves, saying, How can this man give us his flesh to eat?
Then Jesus said unto them, Verily, verily, I say unto you, Except ye eat the flesh of the Son of man, and drink his blood, ye have no life in you.
Whoso eateth my flesh, and drinketh my blood, hath eternal life; and I will raise him up at the last day.
For my flesh is meat indeed, and my blood is drink indeed.
He that eateth my flesh, and drinketh my blood, dwelleth in me, and I in him.
As the living Father hath sent me, and I live by the Father: so he that eateth me, even he shall live by me.This is that bread which came down from heaven: not as your fathers did eat manna, and are dead: he that eateth of this bread shall live for ever.
These things said he in the synagogue, as he taught in Capernaum.
Many therefore of his disciples, when they had heard this, said, This is an hard saying; who can hear it?
When Jesus knew in himself that his disciples murmured at it, he said unto them, Doth this offend you?
..From that time many of his disciples went back, and walked no more with him.
If HE was referring to Scriptures, or His sayings, or teachings as 'The Bread' then there would have been no fallout. This took place in the synagog where the Scriptures of the day were read routinely. They were following Him to hear what He had to say.. until this. This was different.
This is off the thread topic but good grief, it takes considerable effort to deny the Eucharist in this passage.
Indeed it does, since the Eucharistic context of the passage is evident, and notice the out of context use of Mark 7, which refers to the “Oral torah” of the Pharisees which later became the Mishnah and the Talmud in response to your arguments.
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