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Sufficient vs Necessary

FreeGrace2

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For one thing, if there's no moral justification for God damning individuals, then God is an unjust judge.
I believe you've missed the point: Christ died for the sins of the whole world, meaning He was judged for them. They have been judged already. The damning is the action of sending them to the lake of fire, which I've explained why they have to go there.

Do we really have to have a debate over basic points of orthodoxy here? Christian doctrine, as made abundantly clear in scripture, teaches that men commit sins, and these sins cause them to be worthy of eternal death.
Yes, the good news (gospel) is that "Christ died for our sins" (1 Cor 15:3) and promises eternal life to all who believe in Him for it (1 Jn 2:25).

God judges the world on the last day, and men are either justified before God, which is to say, are eternally saved, or they are found wicked, which is to say, are damned. The notion that God forgave everyone but still punishes them with the second death is tantamount to accusing a judge of corruption.
Your "notion" is incorrect. Paying for sin doesn't equate to forgiveness. We know from Acts 10:43 that forgiveness is based on faith in Christ, not based on His death. But, to be clear, no one could be saved or forgiven unless Christ paid the sin debt.

The qualification to share in the saints' inheritance in the verse you quote is the forgiveness of sins, as Paul makes clear in the next verse, "In whom we have redemption, the forgiveness of sins." Forgiveness does not permit redemption, but rather it is redemption.
From Acts 10:43, we're going to have to agree to disagree.

By removing our offense, we stand righteous before God, and when we are judged, cannot be condemned.
Nope. We are declared righteous based on faith in Christ. Rom 4.

Remember, damnation is just another Latin word for condemnation. What moral justification could God have for condemning one who is justified?
None who do not possess eternal life by faith are justified.
 
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FreeGrace2

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Why say I failed to quote you , here it is again , yes it's you , these things are quote marks " "

"Of course NOT. Sin HAD to be paid for BEFORE God will save anyone." FreeGrace2

So is this your statement or not ?

Do you agree with your quoted statement ?
Sure, but where's this supposed other statement that contradicts this one?
 
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cygnusx1

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Sure, but where's this supposed other statement that contradicts this one?

That would be this one , and again. I use quotes ,

"Before Christ died on the cross, God saved men who believed in the promise of eternal life through the Messiah who was yet to come. " FreeGrace2

Now compare the two

"Of course NOT. Sin HAD to be paid for BEFORE God will save anyone." FreeGrace2
 
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FreeGrace2

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That would be this one , and again. I use quotes ,

"Before Christ died on the cross, God saved men who believed in the promise of eternal life through the Messiah who was yet to come. " FreeGrace2

Now compare the two

"Of course NOT. Sin HAD to be paid for BEFORE God will save anyone." FreeGrace2
I think the disconnect is that God's plan was from eternity past, so the plan for Christ to pay for all sins was an established FACT, even before He actually paid for them.

Do you think God would save anyone apart from sins being paid for? Maybe so, but where would that be supported in Scripture?

The key is to believe God's promise. The payment for sin came during the course of human history. But those who believed the promise BEFORE the payment was made are forgiven and saved, just as those who believe after the payment was made are forgiven and saved.

The second statement quoted here by me refers to God's plan, not the literal accomplishment of the plan. Sorry I wasn't more clear.

If my second quote is taken literally, then no one before Christ died could have been saved. That isn't even close to being rational.

And, thanks for allowing me to clarify.
 
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shturt678s

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They are damned for not having His free gift of eternal life.

They are damned and punished, for their distressing the Kingdom of God. There are those that never heard the Truth (IIThess.2:10) so that God could even judge whether or not they had an agape for that Truth, let alone punish them? :idea:

In order to live with God, one must be qualified (Col 1:12) to do so. The gift of eternal life is what qualifies us. Thos who didn't receive by faith that free gift are not qualified to live with God forever, and there is only one other "place" in eternity to exist; the lake of fire, with Lucifer and his angels.

I'm not sure there is a "moral justification" for damnation. God promises eternal life (1 Jn 2:25). Those who believe Him receive it. Those who don't believe Him, don't.

What's wrong with my view?

Old Jack
 
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FreeGrace2

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They are damned and punished, for their distressing the Kingdom of God. There are those that never heard the Truth (IIThess.2:10) so that God could even judge whether or not they had an agape for that Truth, let alone punish them? :idea:
The Bible tells us that God created mankind to seek Him (Acts 17:26-27). That has to include the ability to, or His creation can't do what He intended. If mankind cannot fulfill God's purpose for being created, God failed in His creation. Calvinism has not refuted that.

Second, God has revealed Himself and His attributes to mankind, so that mankind is without excuse for recognizing Him as Creator and being thankful to Him (Rom 1:19-20).

Third, God has promised eternal life to those who believe in His Son (1 Jn 2:25). But those who haven't sought Him, and ignored what He has revealed about Himself, won't know about God's promise, but aren't "off the hook". Since they didn't seek, and pay attention to God's revelation about Himself, they have no excuse for not knowing the gospel promise.

I firmly believe that those who have paid attention to what God has revealed about Him, and actively seek Him, will "be found by Him" (2 Chron 15:2). And, they still have a choice: to believe the gospel or not.

All that said, to answer your question, yes, God does punish those who have never heard the truth, because they have no excuse for not hearing it.

The dictionary defines "punish" as "to cause to undergo pain, loss or suffering for a crime or wrongdoing".

Because everyone is accountable and without excuse for not recognizing God as Creator, and not seeking Him, they don't have the opportunity to hear the truth. As a result, they don't possess eternal life, and have to spend eternity apart from God (spiritual death).
 
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cygnusx1

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I think the disconnect is that God's plan was from eternity past, so the plan for Christ to pay for all sins was an established FACT, even before He actually paid for them.

Do you think God would save anyone apart from sins being paid for? Maybe so, but where would that be supported in Scripture?

The key is to believe God's promise. The payment for sin came during the course of human history. But those who believed the promise BEFORE the payment was made are forgiven and saved, just as those who believe after the payment was made are forgiven and saved.

The second statement quoted here by me refers to God's plan, not the literal accomplishment of the plan. Sorry I wasn't more clear.

If my second quote is taken literally, then no one before Christ died could have been saved. That isn't even close to being rational.

And, thanks for allowing me to clarify.

So you didn't mean the second quote literally , I see . :D

Which now opens the door to salvation accomplished by Christ at the cross , faith being but :
"the substance of things hoped for, the evidence of things not seen."

In other words Christ saved us by His death to be appropriated by faith ' Rom 3:25
 
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shturt678s

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The Bible tells us that God created mankind to seek Him (Acts 17:26-27). That has to include the ability to, or His creation can't do what He intended. If mankind cannot fulfill God's purpose for being created, God failed in His creation. Calvinism has not refuted that.

Second, God has revealed Himself and His attributes to mankind, so that mankind is without excuse for recognizing Him as Creator and being thankful to Him (Rom 1:19-20).

Difficult for an aborted fetus to seek Him (Matt.6:33), secondly, both of the former deal with only "natural theology" sir. Thirdly, Matt.13:41b with a truer interpretation gives the purpose and punishment for hell. Their entrapments as well as they themselves shall be finally and completely gathered up out of the Kindgom they helped to distress. For example if someone has the actual truth on this forum, and that Truth is rejected for whatever reason, distresses the kingdom and gong forever (Chuck Barris Gong Show). No worry about that one, ie, no one has the Truth including me.

Third, God has promised eternal life to those who believe in His Son (1 Jn 2:25). But those who haven't sought Him, and ignored what He has revealed about Himself, won't know about God's promise, but aren't "off the hook". Since they didn't seek, and pay attention to God's revelation about Himself, they have no excuse for not knowing the gospel promise.

I firmly believe that those who have paid attention to what God has revealed about Him, and actively seek Him, will "be found by Him" (2 Chron 15:2). And, they still have a choice: to believe the gospel or not.

All that said, to answer your question, yes, God does punish those who have never heard the truth, because they have no excuse for not hearing it.

The dictionary defines "punish" as "to cause to undergo pain, loss or suffering for a crime or wrongdoing".

Because everyone is accountable and without excuse for not recognizing God as Creator, and not seeking Him, they don't have the opportunity to hear the truth. As a result, they don't possess eternal life, and have to spend eternity apart from God (spiritual death).

Agreeing to disagree with the rest as only a head's up letting the rest go.

Old Jack, hoping no one has the Truth especially in the essentials so I can make it to heaven or at least have a chance born into a full blown apostasy.
 
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shturt678s

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So you didn't mean the second quote literally , I see . :D

Which now opens the door to salvation accomplished by Christ at the cross , faith being but :
"the substance of things hoped for, the evidence of things not seen."

In other words Christ saved us by His death to be appropriated by faith ' Rom 3:25

Heb.11:1, "firm confidence....conviction regarding things not seen." The A.V.'s "the substance of things hoped for" goes back to aquinas and to others who rendered it substantia and to the idea of Chrysostom: faith, for instance, takes the resurrection, which is not yet a reality, and "substantiates" it in our soul. Not good, however will have to reject along with others for religious reasons and understand. :o

"evidence": Because "elegxos" is used also in the sense of "proof" some prefer this meaning in the present connection. Thus the A.V. renders "evidence," which the R.V. seeks to improve by rendering the word as a term expressing as anction: "the proving". The A.V. perpetuates the idea of the Vulgate which has rendered the word argumentum.

Mr. Calvin didn't help matters with his evidentia. But we cannot conceive of faith as proof, evidence, an action of proving something unseen or an argument for unseen things. Again you folks will have to disagree so won't expound any further. :idea:

Old Jack
 
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Epiphoskei

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I'm going to focus on just this paragraph because it seems to me that you're just repeating yourself in the rest of your post. If you want me to address a specific point, I'll do so if asked.

I believe you've missed the point: Christ died for the sins of the whole world, meaning He was judged for them. They have been judged already. The damning is the action of sending them to the lake of fire, which I've explained why they have to go there.
"Damn" means to condemn - specificially, to condemn on the basis of a finding of iniquity in an individual. It's a judgment. Justification means to be found to be without iniquity. To forgive a debt means to no longer hold a debt against an individual. To pay someone's debt likewise means to release him from his debt. When God chose to write the Bible in human language, he agreed to be bound by the basic unspoken contract of language use: "I will abide by the agreed-upon meanings of words unless I demonstrate how I intend to use a word differently." The Bible doesn't seek to redefine any of these words. You're redefining lexical meanings of words to accommodate a theology. That's eisegesis.

Using the general definitions of the words you employ, what you're saying, in effect, is that all of the iniquities of the world have been judged in Christ and therefore we have been released from our debts, but not everyone gets to be released from our debts. Instead, some who have faith will be found to be without iniquity, whereas others who do not have faith will be condemned to hell on the basis of the iniquities which are found to be within them which Christ has already taken out of them but are still in them.

That's what you're saying, when we substitute the definitions of words for the words themselves in your teaching: Christ died for all the sins of every human in the world, paying for them, but only those who believe are justified and forgiven, the unbelievers are damned.

You seem to be fixating on the moment of a man's conversion as if, from the divine perspective, everything which happens to that man at that moment is temporally bound to that moment. If a man is forgiven at that moment, he has to be forgiven on the basis only of things happening at that moment. Because Christ is not being crucified for that man at that moment as a consequence of the man's faith, you can't accept that the reason that man is being saved is because Christ, on the cross, reconciled him to God. At most, Christ, on the cross, made it possible for that man to be reconciled to God at a later date.

Contrarily, the fact that Christ carried the full penalty for sins on the cross, and yet at a later date one must believe in order to be forgiven, does not indicate that forgiveness and reconciliation to God are separate things from having your sins atoned for. And it certainly doesn't mean that Heaven and Hell cease to be places of reward and punishment for possession or lack of justification. Christ, on the cross, unqualifiedly saved the saved and unqualifiedly did not save the unsaved. That's particular, efficacious redemption.

And that's what the OT says about atonement. There's no forgiveness-enabling element of Yom Kippur. The priest drove the scapegoat off into the wilderness, and that act took away the people's iniquity. Likewise, Moses did not paint blood over every Hebrew house's doorframe, whereupon those inside were spared or taken by the angel of death on the basis of faith. Likewise, in a sin offering, "The priest shall make atonement, and his sin shall be" - shall be, not can be - "forgiven." So when Isaiah prophesies "The punishment that brought us peace was upon him," I read that as "The punishment that brought us peace was upon him," not "the punishment that allows people to have peace was upon him." Finished work. Not a potentiality.

Which is, drawing this back to the point I started with, the very English meaning of atonement. Atonement was derived from the old French words meaning "To make one." It means to reconcile. If I sin against my roommate, but then I make up for it to his satisfaction, there is no question of his still being angry at me. We are reconciled, the sin is no more, and we go on trying to live as if nothing happened. When Christ rectified the separation between God and men through his death, ending our sins, there is no question of those whom he reconciled to God being damned. They are folded into the communion of the Godhead as adopted heirs of God's kingdom.
 
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FreeGrace2

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Difficult for an aborted fetus to seek Him (Matt.6:33)
Now that sure opens the door for a different thread!! There are various views as to when God places the soul into the body. From Gen 2:7, it is clear that for the first human, God created a body first, and then placed the soul into that body, at which time "man became a living soul". Unless you hold to Traducianism, the issue is when the soul is put into the body. But that's for another thread, not here.

secondly, both of the former deal with only "natural theology" sir.
Granted. Which is one of the ways that man is "drawn" to God. For the purpose of further revelation, i.e., the gospel.

Thirdly, Matt.13:41b with a truer interpretation gives the purpose and punishment for hell. Their entrapments as well as they themselves shall be finally and completely gathered up out of the Kindgom they helped to distress.
Here are v.41 and 42 -
41 “The Son of Man will send forth His angels, and they will gather out of His kingdom all stumbling blocks, and those who commit lawlessness, 42 and will throw them into the furnace of fire; in that place there will be weeping and gnashing of teeth.

I'm not seeing "purpose" clearly, but there is punishment: as noted by 'weeping and gnashing of teeth'. Yes, there will be suffering.

For example if someone has the actual truth on this forum, and that Truth is rejected for whatever reason, distresses the kingdom and gong forever (Chuck Barris Gong Show). No worry about that one, ie, no one has the Truth including me.
If you have the Bible, you have Truth. ;)

Agreeing to disagree with the rest as only a head's up letting the rest go.
Always a pleasure to disagree with you, my friend. :)

Old Jack, hoping no one has the Truth especially in the essentials so I can make it to heaven
Unless one does have the truth, esp in the essentials, one will not make it to heaven. i.e., saving faith, THE essential for going to heaven.

or at least have a chance born into a full blown apostasy.
Unfortunately, no one is truly immune from it. That's why Paul was so clear about "continue in the faith" and "remain true to the Lord".
 
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FreeGrace2

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Unfortunately, you are still confused re: my view.
I'm going to focus on just this paragraph because it seems to me that you're just repeating yourself in the rest of your post. If you want me to address a specific point, I'll do so if asked.
Rather, I'll continue to comment on your comments, in the hope that I will clarify your understanding of my view.

"Damn" means to condemn - specificially, to condemn on the basis of a finding of iniquity in an individual. It's a judgment.
I disagree. One can be judged for a number of different issues. I believe the judgment for the lake of fire is based on NOT having eternal life, which is what actually qualifies one to live with God in eternity. Simply consider the use or function of 'judges' in many different situations: dog show, car show, etc. There is no idea of iniquity. And I don't find that in the Bible regarding WHY people go to the lake of fire.

Justification means to be found to be without iniquity.
I absolutely disagree here. Justification is what God does to a believer; He declares the believer righteous on the basis of his faith. That's justification. Since you still sin (we all do) we continue to be WITH iniquity, yet as believers, we have been justified.

To forgive a debt means to no longer hold a debt against an individual. To pay someone's debt likewise means to release him from his debt. When God chose to write the Bible in human language, he agreed to be bound by the basic unspoken contract of language use: "I will abide by the agreed-upon meanings of words unless I demonstrate how I intend to use a word differently." The Bible doesn't seek to redefine any of these words. You're redefining lexical meanings of words to accommodate a theology. That's eisegesis.
I charge Calvinism of eisegesis, as clearly seen in RT's explanation of Heb 2:9.

Christ paid the debt of mankind, though RT has to deny that, in order to maintain its theological consistency. But that didn't save man. Nor forgive him. Nor justify him. Nor adopt him as sons. All of these are on the basis of faith in Christ, who paid the debt for the whole world.

Using the general definitions of the words you employ, what you're saying, in effect, is that all of the iniquities of the world have been judged in Christ and therefore we have been released from our debts, but not everyone gets to be released from our debts.
No, that is just your confusion about my view. I'm NOT saying that at all, and never have. It's just that you still don't understand, probably because you simply will not even consider that Christ died for everyone, but salvation is only for believers.

The problem is that RT thinks that Christ's death actually saves the elect. So, show me a verse that clearly indicates that, if true. Should be easy enough if the Bible does teach that.

Instead, some who have faith will be found to be without iniquity, whereas others who do not have faith will be condemned to hell on the basis of the iniquities which are found to be within them which Christ has already taken out of them but are still in them.
Wrong. It's not "some" who have faith will be found to be without iniquity. It's this: all who have faith have been declared righteous and are justified on the basis of faith (Rom 5:1).

Those who have never believed are condemned on that basis (Jn 3:18,36).

You seem to be fixating on the moment of a man's conversion as if, from the divine perspective, everything which happens to that man at that moment is temporally bound to that moment.
Sorry, but I have no idea what you are trying to communicate here. I'm definitely not fixating on any one moment, as you think.

If a man is forgiven at that moment, he has to be forgiven on the basis only of things happening at that moment.
Absolutely wrong. Christ atoned or propitiated for the sins of the whole world, meaning everyone in humanity. That's my view, so if you want to critique it, then you have to at least accept my view and argue from my view why it's wrong. If you can prove that Christ didn't die for everyone, please proceed.

Because Christ is not being crucified for that man at that moment as a consequence of the man's faith, you can't accept that the reason that man is being saved is because Christ, on the cross, reconciled him to God. At most, Christ, on the cross, made it possible for that man to be reconciled to God at a later date.
Totally wrong. Christ reconciled the world to God (2 Cor 5:14,15,19). What is a reconciliation? It's 2 parties coming together, where both must extend their hands for a handshake, to illustrate. Because Christ died for all sins, He reconciled the world to God, propitiating God the Father, which is equivalent to God extending His hand for a handshake in reconciliation.

But unless man also extends his hand for a handshake, there isn't reconciliation. It takes 2 to reconcile; both parties that have been et enmity.

When a person believes the gospel, that is an illustration of extending the hand in a handshake of reconciliation. Which is why Paul added v.20 after v.19.

Contrarily, the fact that Christ carried the full penalty for sins on the cross, and yet at a later date one must believe in order to be forgiven, does not indicate that forgiveness and reconciliation to God are separate things from having your sins atoned for.
Actually, it DOES indicate they are separate things. Which is why you continue to be confused about my view. Paying the sin debt in full allows God to extend His hand, as it where, for reconciliation. But man must extend his hand for reconciliation. Which he does when he places is faith and trust in Christ for eternal life.

And it certainly doesn't mean that Heaven and Hell cease to be places of reward and punishment for possession or lack of justification.
Of course not. I never suggested that either heaven or hell ceases to be places of reward and punishment.

Christ, on the cross, unqualifiedly saved the saved and unqualifiedly did not save the unsaved. That's particular, efficacious redemption.
No, that's RT talking points. Please show me a verse that unambiguously SAYS that Christ's death saves people.

And that's what the OT says about atonement. There's no forgiveness-enabling element of Yom Kippur. The priest drove the scapegoat off into the wilderness, and that act took away the people's iniquity.
Actually, not really. It always was symbolic for what the Messiah was going to really do, once for all. Which is why they did it once a year, and the writer of Hebrews made a comment about it as well.

Likewise, Moses did not paint blood over every Hebrew house's doorframe, whereupon those inside were spared or taken by the angel of death on the basis of faith.
No, Moses didn't do that over every Hebrew's house. The father of each house did it. And, yes, where there was blood, there was no death.

Likewise, in a sin offering, "The priest shall make atonement, and his sin shall be" - shall be, not can be - "forgiven." So when Isaiah prophesies "The punishment that brought us peace was upon him," I read that as "The punishment that brought us peace was upon him," not "the punishment that allows people to have peace was upon him." Finished work. Not a potentiality.
One has to understand what is meant by "brought us peace". Seems you take it as saving. I take it as God's side of reconciliation.

Which is, drawing this back to the point I started with, the very English meaning of atonement. Atonement was derived from the old French words meaning "To make one." It means to reconcile. If I sin against my roommate, but then I make up for it to his satisfaction, there is no question of his still being angry at me. We are reconciled, the sin is no more, and we go on trying to live as if nothing happened.
This pretty much illustrates what I've just said up further in this post.

Just it takes 2 to tango, it takes 2 to reconcile.

When Christ rectified the separation between God and men through his death, ending our sins, there is no question of those whom he reconciled to God being damned.
Sure there is. Damnation is based on lack of saving faith. Jn 3:18,36.

They are folded into the communion of the Godhead as adopted heirs of God's kingdom.
This describes believers only.
 
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Epiphoskei

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The paragraph is well accepted as the basic unit of argument. I thus put paragraph breaks between my major thoughts. If two sentences are within the same paragraph, it takes a very good reason to interact with them separately. Try responding to an actual thought, not a snippet.

What you've done is taken a coherent argument and interrupted with "No!" "No!" "No!" every other word. Anything you've said here, I've already addressed in the post you just dismembered. This is not how you respectfully debate.
 
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FreeGrace2

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The paragraph is well accepted as the basic unit of argument. I thus put paragraph breaks between my major thoughts. If two sentences are within the same paragraph, it takes a very good reason to interact with them separately. Try responding to an actual thought, not a snippet.
Maybe you might not think so, but for me, every sentence IS an actual thought.

What you've done is taken a coherent argument and interrupted with "No!" "No!" "No!" every other word. Anything you've said here, I've already addressed in the post you just dismembered. This is not how you respectfully debate.
Actually, I said WAY MORE than a simple "no". I explained myself. If you're not up to responding to my comments, that is ok.

btw, the reason I comment on sentences, rather than whole paragraphs generally, though not always, is because so often a paragraph is just a jumble of disconnected thoughts (imho). It's much easier to comment on 1 thought or point at a time, rather than try to make a comment after a such a paragraph.
 
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Epiphoskei

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Maybe you might not think so, but for me, every sentence IS an actual thought.

I have been taught to write in paragraphs since primary school. I have no idea what to make of this. All I can say is that if you're not responding to my paragraphs, you're not responding to what I'm writing.
 
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FreeGrace2

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I have been taught to write in paragraphs since primary school. I have no idea what to make of this. All I can say is that if you're not responding to my paragraphs, you're not responding to what I'm writing.
The problem, as I have already pointed out, is that your paragraphs contain a number of thoughts that need to be addressed individually. If that is something you don't want to deal with, then let's just not post to each other.

btw, each paragraph contains individual sentences. I was taught to form complete sentences. Then I was taught to put them together in paragraphs to express a common idea.

When there are several sentences in a paragraph that are about several ideas, then I will take them apart one by one, for clarity.

The problem I see with your approach is that you capture my entire post, sans the quotes from you to provide context for my several paragraphs, and then you throw in single words, etc. so that I have no idea where in my overall post your comments are directed.

Go back and look at your posts where you quote from my posts. Has it occurred that your comments cannot be tied to any of my comments specifically? If not, it should occur to you.
 
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nobdysfool

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That doesn't explain (or maybe it does, actually), why some of your replies to me do not actually address what I said. I was taught that a paragraph should be about one main thought, that may be expressed in several sentences, possibly containing peripheral thoughts to the main thought. Epiphoskei actually expresses himself quite well. It appears the the real problem is that who he is addressing doesn't appreciate and therefore disagrees with those thoughts, and attempts to fragment the thoughts in the hopes of more easily overcoming and dissipating them. That would be in keeping with an underlying assumption, that Calvinists cannot possibly be right in their theology, which is only an assumption that has not been proven in actual fact.
 
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shturt678s

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Now that sure opens the door for a different thread!! There are various views as to when God places the soul into the body. From Gen 2:7, it is clear that for the first human, God created a body first, and then placed the soul into that body, at which time "man became a living soul". Unless you hold to Traducianism, the issue is when the soul is put into the body. But that's for another thread, not here.

Granted. Which is one of the ways that man is "drawn" to God. For the purpose of further revelation, i.e., the gospel.

Drawn to repentance and faith with "natural theology," ie, I don't think so. I think it has more to do with one's realization of sin with the postitive side "faith," man is "drawn" to God. iow it's what man does with Rom.1:20, and etc. where Paul explains in Rom.1:20 where they render it ineffective.

Here are v.41 and 42 -
41 “The Son of Man will send forth His angels, and they will gather out of His kingdom all stumbling blocks, and those who commit lawlessness,

Matt.13:41, "all the offenses and those that work lawlessness." This sure looks to me like the reason (purpose) because "those that work lawlessness" due the the offenses are part of the lawlessness regarding the kingdom they helped distress. If they wouldn't have distressed the Kingdom of God, ie, no problem. Even looks lucid to me even in the English renditions? :confused: I know it's not on this thread, however aborted infants couldn't distress the kingdom, correct?

42 and will throw them into the furnace of fire; in that place there will be weeping and gnashing of teeth.

I'm not seeing "purpose" clearly, but there is punishment: as noted by 'weeping and gnashing of teeth'. Yes, there will be suffering.

If you have the Bible, you have Truth. ;)

You're one of a very few that I have a high respect for your words and you, yet due to no Bible translation can be = original inspired Word of God due to their interpretive nature, we have to agree even in the essentials of repentance and the faith - we will find out who was correct immediately upon our passing. btw Bible translations are great non-inspired aids for sure in order to understand the original contextual interpretations of the Text (IIPet.1:20, 21).

Always a pleasure to disagree with you, my friend. :)

Unless one does have the truth, esp in the essentials, one will not make it to heaven. i.e., saving faith, THE essential for going to heaven.

Unfortunately, no one is truly immune from it. That's why Paul was so clear about "continue in the faith" and "remain true to the Lord".

Old Jack
 
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FreeGrace2

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That doesn't explain (or maybe it does, actually), why some of your replies to me do not actually address what I said. I was taught that a paragraph should be about one main thought, that may be expressed in several sentences, possibly containing peripheral thoughts to the main thought. Epiphoskei actually expresses himself quite well. It appears the the real problem is that who he is addressing doesn't appreciate and therefore disagrees with those thoughts, and attempts to fragment the thoughts in the hopes of more easily overcoming and dissipating them.
Nope. I take one point at a time. Not one paragraph at a time. When one paragraph contains several points that need to be addressed, I do it one at a time.

That would be in keeping with an underlying assumption, that Calvinists cannot possibly be right in their theology, which is only an assumption that has not been proven in actual fact.
It is very easy to make the claim that I am only assuming something, and that assumption has not been proven.

In reality, RT cannot prove its own claims from Scripture. We're been round and round on this. Where are the verses that unambiguously SAY that Christ died only for the elect (in whatever wording makes that clear), or that He didn't die for everyone?

Where are the verses that unambiguously SAY that God chooses who will believe, since that is the real foundation of the RT view of election?

These are huge doctrines that RT cannot find support from Scripture.

So, when someone from RT actually provides verses that unambiguously SAYS what RT claims, then RT will be proven and my view will be refuted. But not until.

otoh, I've shown verses that SAY unambiguously that Christ died for all. And that God chooses (is well pleased) to save those who believe.
 
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FreeGrace2

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Drawn to repentance and faith with "natural theology," ie, I don't think so. I think it has more to do with one's realization of sin with the postitive side "faith," man is "drawn" to God. iow it's what man does with Rom.1:20, and etc. where Paul explains in Rom.1:20 where they render it ineffective.
I also don't believe that repentance and faith comes from 'natural theology'. My point is that from natural theology, men have no excuse for recognizing God exists. Combine that with the fact that God created mankind to seek Him, from Acts 17:26-27, and from natural theology, the seeking of God (for relationship) will result in coming face to face with the gospel.

Matt.13:41, "all the offenses and those that work lawlessness." This sure looks to me like the reason (purpose) because "those that work lawlessness" due the the offenses are part of the lawlessness regarding the kingdom they helped distress. If they wouldn't have distressed the Kingdom of God, ie, no problem. Even looks lucid to me even in the English renditions? :confused: I know it's not on this thread, however aborted infants couldn't distress the kingdom, correct?
I guess I'm not getting your point about "distressing the kingdom". Sorry.

As to aborted fetuses, (an infant has been born), the issue is whethere they have a soul or not. That's why I mentioned Traducianism.

You're one of a very few that I have a high respect for your words and you, yet due to no Bible translation can be = original inspired Word of God due to their interpretive nature, we have to agree even in the essentials of repentance and the faith - we will find out who was correct immediately upon our passing.
I agree.

btw Bible translations are great non-inspired aids for sure in order to understand the original contextual interpretations of the Text (IIPet.1:20, 21).
:) Which is why I call my NIV the "nearly inspired version". Usually gets a chuckle in my SS class.
 
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