Sovereignty and answered prayer?

questionman

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I have a lot of questions around this and I'm not sure if this better belongs in a different forum, but I didn't see one that was a good fit.

The questions I have are around the interplay between probabilistic events, natural law, human agency, and miraculous supernatural intervention as it relates to "answered prayer" and God's sovereignty.

In thinking about answered prayer, one must start with God's sovereignty. What is the extent of his power/force over events in the universe (I am already assuming God created everything)? Does he directly cause no outcomes, all outcomes, or somewhere in between? How does natural law and human agency fit within the notion of meticulous sovereignty? What is the difference between sovereignty and causation? Or sovereignty and providence? Causation and delegation?

Assuming God is sovereign over all things, does he also then cause all things? Is God like an infinite switchboard operator, constantly at work every microsecond causing all events to occur down to the smallest particle? Surely as an infinite being he could literally and actively be causing all things without injury or exhaustion, but does he?

Is he every moment pulling down all mass to the center of cosmic objects based on their own masses and distance? Is he at the same time actively causing cell division and all other phases of the cell cycle? Is he adding length and breadth to plantlife, producing flowers and fruit? Is he weaving baby DNA together in the womb? Is he actually throwing lightning across the sky and literally swiping the ocean into waves against the beach? Is he creating black holes, destroying stars or slinging asteroids around the universe? Is he the master strategist firing neurons around the brains of two opponents playing chess, directing the moves each decides to play? Is he contracting the muscles in the lion's jaw to crush down on its prey?

Or has he established natural law that governs the universe including physics, chemistry, biology, astronomy, mathematics, etc. that he has set in motion and given some kind of delegated power and force and will to the universe?

Has he not given at least instincts if not some kind of power, agency and decision making to the animal kingdom to act according to their natures and in response to the natural law God has established?

Has he not granted human beings some kind of agency, will, and power to cause events to occur? Is this not what it means to rule over all creation and subdue it? Surely God does not give that mandate then in subterfuge circumvent the imputed authority and cause all of humanity's actions like pulling on a puppet's strings? In the moral sphere, at least, there must be agency and will for there to be accountability and culpability. Automatons can not be guilty of any crime.

Surely there are at least some events that God does not himself cause, such as evil actions, thoughts, or intents? What then is the cause of those events, and by what power are they caused? What agency controls them? Surely God is incapable of directly acting or otherwise employing indirect means that are contrary to his own nature?

It seems safe to assume that God does not himself literally, actively, directly cause all events to occur. There are natural forces that cause some natural events based on natural laws that he has established. There are instincts and agency that God has granted to all creatures, especially mankind. He has granted both the will and the power/ability to act on behalf of that will, within the limits of the natural law he has established. There are amoral, natural events that occur based on natural law and the agency granted to animals (tangent: can any animal actions be moral or immoral?). There are immoral events that occur because of the agency granted to men. There are also moral events that occur because of the agency granted to men.

So then what does it mean that God is meticulously sovereign if he is not actively causing all outcomes? Is he sovereign in the sense that he initially established natural law and natural forces and granted agency? But not in the sense of being the primary cause of every outcome? Or in the sense that he could destroy it all if and when he chooses? Is it to confuse determinism and providence to assume that God is the primary causal agent behind every outcome? Is he actually meticulously sovereign, then? Can/does he override natural events and forces to create alternative outcomes as a result of prayer? Can he redirect or influence human agency to realize a different outcome than what naturally would have occurred? By what means does he do that? Does such “meddling” negate human agency altogether? A lot more to think about here.

If he is never active in the universe after creation, and all outcomes are the result of natural law, force and agency, lines seem to blur with deism. If he is infinitely active causing all events and outcomes in the universe to the nth degree, and there is hardly a separation between God, his actions and the universe, lines seem to blur with pantheism.

To bring this back to the issue of answered prayer, let’s focus on the events and outcomes themselves and the activity of God in realizing the outcome.

Given natural law and agency, there are such things as probabilistic events. There are outcomes that are more or less likely to occur based on variables present in nature, including the variety of agencies involved, human or otherwise.

The simple example is drawing a single card from a randomly-shuffled standard deck. There is a 100% probability of drawing “any card”, a 25% probability of drawing a “Spade”, and only a 7% probability of drawing “a King”.

If a man prays to God that he would draw “any card”, which he would do 100% of the time, it is accurate to say that outcome is answered prayer? Did God actually do anything to realize that outcome when he drew the card? Did he act beyond the distant past creation of a universe that resulted in men with brains, muscles, and hands to produce paper, ink and imagine a game of four suits of 13 cards each? If an outcome is 100% probable, can it be called an answer to prayer?

What if he prayed that he would draw “a Spade”, and did? There was a 25% chance that he would draw it without any divine intervention. How should the man think about that outcome? Should he believe that God acted on his behalf to ensure the outcome? Was this answered prayer? Did God do anything special to realize the outcome? It would be impossible for him to know if God truly acted since there was a non-zero probability of the outcome occurring naturally. Should he ascribe the outcome to God and praise him for it? Is that faith? How does God think about people ascribing outcomes to him that he did not cause (if he did not cause it)? Surely when God works and acts, he wants those works to be unequivocally known as his own.

Must there be a direct, primary cause of an outcome for it to be considered answered prayer? Should we even pray for outcomes that have some probability of occurring? The only way to truly know that God acted was if an outcome occurred that had a zero probability: the man prays that when he flipped the next card, the card turned into a $100 bill instead, and indeed it did. Assuming normal conditions and a standard deck with no prior meddling, it would require a supernatural cause for that outcome to occur. In other words, a miracle. That would be a direct and divine intervention by God; truly answered prayer.

I think most prayers are not for zero probability outcomes (miracles). At least for me, I think most of my prayers are for outcomes that have some probability of occurring naturally. Probably because, by definition, miracles are supernatural and go beyond our common thinking and experience and we don’t have the imagination or belief that those outcomes can or should occur. We never actually see true miracles (that is, zero probability outcomes) - we only see probabilistic outcomes that occur through natural and normal means. When we pray, we are wanting to “tip the balance” of those probabilities in our favor. But is that how we should pray? And is that how we should think about answered prayer? Should these outcomes bolster our faith? What I believe may not be true, even if it’s a “positive” or “good” belief.

For probabilistic events, should we believe that God chose to intervene (or not) to ensure a desired outcome? Or should we simply be grateful if the outcome “went our way” without directly ascribing that to affirmative causality by God?

It seems that posture is not much different from wishful thinking or merely hoping that things go our way, if we don’t believe God will or does directly intervene. But there is no way to know that he did act, that he did “answer my prayer” for outcomes that were already probable. How can prayer, in this way, be for the purpose of increasing my faith; that is, to see God’s working in my life? Should my faith increase more when low probability events occur, but less when high probability events do?

What about prayers for rain (or no rain) or colds to go away or for a well-earned promotion or for the traffic light to stay green?

Problems multiply when you start looking at prayers with more serious consequences. I may pray for a dangerous hurricane to miss my town (a probabilistic event in the “cone of probability”). If it misses me, was it answered prayer? When it devastates another area instead, in particular a more poor, unprepared, uneducated, perhaps even unbelieving people, now we must say that God, in answering my prayer, chose to intervene and devastate and destroy and kill thousands of men, women, children, and animals, entire communities in order to “answer my prayer”. There are both physical and eternal consequences to this action. Had it hit my wealthy town and nation, most homes would have been fine, hardly anyone would die, and government services and first responders would get things back up and running in no time. I might lose power for a couple days. Instead, hundreds or thousands of people were killed and sent into eternity. I’m sure I didn’t pray exactly for that outcome, but what if that was the only alternative to answer my prayer? What should I think of a God who would do that to answer my prayer for convenience? And likely there were many people there praying for it not to hit them. Why did God choose to answer my prayers but not theirs?

And actually, that outcome had a probability of occurring without divine intervention. And with the infinitely complex variables of weather conditions and geography, perhaps that outcome was even more probable than it affecting me to begin with. So was it even answered prayer at all that the hurricane missed me?

If God is the primary cause of all events, does he change what he was planning to do before a prayer was uttered? If he was always going to do what was prayed for, how efficacious was the prayer anyway (it changed nothing and proved nothing)? If he did change his mind, does that raise doubts about the goodness or perfection of the original plan (man’s idea was better than God’s)? Or does God choose to cause less good outcomes for some other reason because someone prayed for it? Maybe the lesser good now will lead to a greater good later, but why would he have needed to change his mind because of prayer to lead to that greater good- why not choose it to begin with?

Does answered prayer just mean “things went my way” but not that God necessarily intervened?

Why is it that when probabilistic events “go our way”, we attribute that to God and answered prayer, but when outcomes don’t go our way, we usually don’t attribute God’s direct causation to the outcome- rather, we say he “didn’t answer our prayer” in a way that seems like a passive response or rather a non-response: a non-action; he “didn’t intervene”. In this scenario, is he merely “allowing” an outcome but not causing it? But that brings us back to his sovereignty and what you believe that means. You can’t believe that he causes all outcomes except the ones that you didn’t want. Even more troubling is when you start thinking about outcomes like suffering and evil. Does he or does he not cause those outcomes?

Wow, so that was a lot I guess. How should I think about these topics?
 

Mark Quayle

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I have a lot of questions around this and I'm not sure if this better belongs in a different forum, but I didn't see one that was a good fit.

The questions I have are around the interplay between probabilistic events, natural law, human agency, and miraculous supernatural intervention as it relates to "answered prayer" and God's sovereignty.

In thinking about answered prayer, one must start with God's sovereignty. What is the extent of his power/force over events in the universe (I am already assuming God created everything)? Does he directly cause no outcomes, all outcomes, or somewhere in between? How does natural law and human agency fit within the notion of meticulous sovereignty? What is the difference between sovereignty and causation? Or sovereignty and providence? Causation and delegation?

Assuming God is sovereign over all things, does he also then cause all things? Is God like an infinite switchboard operator, constantly at work every microsecond causing all events to occur down to the smallest particle? Surely as an infinite being he could literally and actively be causing all things without injury or exhaustion, but does he?

Is he every moment pulling down all mass to the center of cosmic objects based on their own masses and distance? Is he at the same time actively causing cell division and all other phases of the cell cycle? Is he adding length and breadth to plantlife, producing flowers and fruit? Is he weaving baby DNA together in the womb? Is he actually throwing lightning across the sky and literally swiping the ocean into waves against the beach? Is he creating black holes, destroying stars or slinging asteroids around the universe? Is he the master strategist firing neurons around the brains of two opponents playing chess, directing the moves each decides to play? Is he contracting the muscles in the lion's jaw to crush down on its prey?

Or has he established natural law that governs the universe including physics, chemistry, biology, astronomy, mathematics, etc. that he has set in motion and given some kind of delegated power and force and will to the universe?

Has he not given at least instincts if not some kind of power, agency and decision making to the animal kingdom to act according to their natures and in response to the natural law God has established?

Has he not granted human beings some kind of agency, will, and power to cause events to occur? Is this not what it means to rule over all creation and subdue it? Surely God does not give that mandate then in subterfuge circumvent the imputed authority and cause all of humanity's actions like pulling on a puppet's strings? In the moral sphere, at least, there must be agency and will for there to be accountability and culpability. Automatons can not be guilty of any crime.

Surely there are at least some events that God does not himself cause, such as evil actions, thoughts, or intents? What then is the cause of those events, and by what power are they caused? What agency controls them? Surely God is incapable of directly acting or otherwise employing indirect means that are contrary to his own nature?

It seems safe to assume that God does not himself literally, actively, directly cause all events to occur. There are natural forces that cause some natural events based on natural laws that he has established. There are instincts and agency that God has granted to all creatures, especially mankind. He has granted both the will and the power/ability to act on behalf of that will, within the limits of the natural law he has established. There are amoral, natural events that occur based on natural law and the agency granted to animals (tangent: can any animal actions be moral or immoral?). There are immoral events that occur because of the agency granted to men. There are also moral events that occur because of the agency granted to men.

So then what does it mean that God is meticulously sovereign if he is not actively causing all outcomes? Is he sovereign in the sense that he initially established natural law and natural forces and granted agency? But not in the sense of being the primary cause of every outcome? Or in the sense that he could destroy it all if and when he chooses? Is it to confuse determinism and providence to assume that God is the primary causal agent behind every outcome? Is he actually meticulously sovereign, then? Can/does he override natural events and forces to create alternative outcomes as a result of prayer? Can he redirect or influence human agency to realize a different outcome than what naturally would have occurred? By what means does he do that? Does such “meddling” negate human agency altogether? A lot more to think about here.

If he is never active in the universe after creation, and all outcomes are the result of natural law, force and agency, lines seem to blur with deism. If he is infinitely active causing all events and outcomes in the universe to the nth degree, and there is hardly a separation between God, his actions and the universe, lines seem to blur with pantheism.

To bring this back to the issue of answered prayer, let’s focus on the events and outcomes themselves and the activity of God in realizing the outcome.

Given natural law and agency, there are such things as probabilistic events. There are outcomes that are more or less likely to occur based on variables present in nature, including the variety of agencies involved, human or otherwise.

The simple example is drawing a single card from a randomly-shuffled standard deck. There is a 100% probability of drawing “any card”, a 25% probability of drawing a “Spade”, and only a 7% probability of drawing “a King”.

If a man prays to God that he would draw “any card”, which he would do 100% of the time, it is accurate to say that outcome is answered prayer? Did God actually do anything to realize that outcome when he drew the card? Did he act beyond the distant past creation of a universe that resulted in men with brains, muscles, and hands to produce paper, ink and imagine a game of four suits of 13 cards each? If an outcome is 100% probable, can it be called an answer to prayer?

What if he prayed that he would draw “a Spade”, and did? There was a 25% chance that he would draw it without any divine intervention. How should the man think about that outcome? Should he believe that God acted on his behalf to ensure the outcome? Was this answered prayer? Did God do anything special to realize the outcome? It would be impossible for him to know if God truly acted since there was a non-zero probability of the outcome occurring naturally. Should he ascribe the outcome to God and praise him for it? Is that faith? How does God think about people ascribing outcomes to him that he did not cause (if he did not cause it)? Surely when God works and acts, he wants those works to be unequivocally known as his own.

Must there be a direct, primary cause of an outcome for it to be considered answered prayer? Should we even pray for outcomes that have some probability of occurring? The only way to truly know that God acted was if an outcome occurred that had a zero probability: the man prays that when he flipped the next card, the card turned into a $100 bill instead, and indeed it did. Assuming normal conditions and a standard deck with no prior meddling, it would require a supernatural cause for that outcome to occur. In other words, a miracle. That would be a direct and divine intervention by God; truly answered prayer.

I think most prayers are not for zero probability outcomes (miracles). At least for me, I think most of my prayers are for outcomes that have some probability of occurring naturally. Probably because, by definition, miracles are supernatural and go beyond our common thinking and experience and we don’t have the imagination or belief that those outcomes can or should occur. We never actually see true miracles (that is, zero probability outcomes) - we only see probabilistic outcomes that occur through natural and normal means. When we pray, we are wanting to “tip the balance” of those probabilities in our favor. But is that how we should pray? And is that how we should think about answered prayer? Should these outcomes bolster our faith? What I believe may not be true, even if it’s a “positive” or “good” belief.

For probabilistic events, should we believe that God chose to intervene (or not) to ensure a desired outcome? Or should we simply be grateful if the outcome “went our way” without directly ascribing that to affirmative causality by God?

It seems that posture is not much different from wishful thinking or merely hoping that things go our way, if we don’t believe God will or does directly intervene. But there is no way to know that he did act, that he did “answer my prayer” for outcomes that were already probable. How can prayer, in this way, be for the purpose of increasing my faith; that is, to see God’s working in my life? Should my faith increase more when low probability events occur, but less when high probability events do?

What about prayers for rain (or no rain) or colds to go away or for a well-earned promotion or for the traffic light to stay green?

Problems multiply when you start looking at prayers with more serious consequences. I may pray for a dangerous hurricane to miss my town (a probabilistic event in the “cone of probability”). If it misses me, was it answered prayer? When it devastates another area instead, in particular a more poor, unprepared, uneducated, perhaps even unbelieving people, now we must say that God, in answering my prayer, chose to intervene and devastate and destroy and kill thousands of men, women, children, and animals, entire communities in order to “answer my prayer”. There are both physical and eternal consequences to this action. Had it hit my wealthy town and nation, most homes would have been fine, hardly anyone would die, and government services and first responders would get things back up and running in no time. I might lose power for a couple days. Instead, hundreds or thousands of people were killed and sent into eternity. I’m sure I didn’t pray exactly for that outcome, but what if that was the only alternative to answer my prayer? What should I think of a God who would do that to answer my prayer for convenience? And likely there were many people there praying for it not to hit them. Why did God choose to answer my prayers but not theirs?

And actually, that outcome had a probability of occurring without divine intervention. And with the infinitely complex variables of weather conditions and geography, perhaps that outcome was even more probable than it affecting me to begin with. So was it even answered prayer at all that the hurricane missed me?

If God is the primary cause of all events, does he change what he was planning to do before a prayer was uttered? If he was always going to do what was prayed for, how efficacious was the prayer anyway (it changed nothing and proved nothing)? If he did change his mind, does that raise doubts about the goodness or perfection of the original plan (man’s idea was better than God’s)? Or does God choose to cause less good outcomes for some other reason because someone prayed for it? Maybe the lesser good now will lead to a greater good later, but why would he have needed to change his mind because of prayer to lead to that greater good- why not choose it to begin with?

Does answered prayer just mean “things went my way” but not that God necessarily intervened?

Why is it that when probabilistic events “go our way”, we attribute that to God and answered prayer, but when outcomes don’t go our way, we usually don’t attribute God’s direct causation to the outcome- rather, we say he “didn’t answer our prayer” in a way that seems like a passive response or rather a non-response: a non-action; he “didn’t intervene”. In this scenario, is he merely “allowing” an outcome but not causing it? But that brings us back to his sovereignty and what you believe that means. You can’t believe that he causes all outcomes except the ones that you didn’t want. Even more troubling is when you start thinking about outcomes like suffering and evil. Does he or does he not cause those outcomes?
Wow, so that was a lot I guess. How should I think about these topics?

Supposing that our silly understanding of the facts is capable of producing valid questions, it may be possible to think of useful or at least logical answers for them. I could say "Well, since God inhabits or controls (or as I like to think --he is (or maybe his love is) the very essence of the existence of or material out of which every smallest particle of matter/energy or whatever else may be minutest --even the essence of very reality), then he is obviously in total control (AND his plan will indeed come to pass), yet his operation of things is both on grand scale and minutest detail so beyond ours that we should be able to see that the term automaton, even for a chicken, doesn't really apply." I could say that as Creator and "inhabiter" of every detail, including time, for him to speak into existence is perhaps no different than to direct every motion of the ongoing evolvement of things. In this though, one might say that there is no difference between natural and supernatural and miracle --unless one wants to say that "miracle" only means "unusual" or "apparently operating outside the laws of nature". "Therefore", I could say, "There is no difference between the idea of God setting into motion all things and leaving them to evolve as they will, and God directing every minutest motion. So, therefore, it is silly to see agents as automatons."

But what I prefer to point out it is not really a question of scale and scope in which Creator vs Creature operates, but a difference of SORT of reality or existence from which the two categories operate. Logic does apply to our understanding of him --it works for that-- but it does not own him; he is not subject to it. Reality and existence as we understand (or even as we can conceive of the terms) do not define him nor present borders to him, and certainly the principles by which this universe operates are not for him to obey, since he "invented' them, but are for us --inescapable for us.

One reformed writer once said something like, "God does not love because it is good to be loving. Rather, Love is what it is, because God is love." So I see it with every other universal fact and principle-- Logic and Reality etc are not structures from which he must, or even has chosen, to operate. Rather they are what they are because he is who he is. One might even say he is incapable of being otherwise, but that is a silly way to look at it, supposing nonsense to be a possibility.
 
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questionman

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Mark, thanks for taking the time to respond.

Your first paragraph makes me confused about the difference between your perspective and pantheism (if there is no distinction between the Creator and the Created) though admittedly that isn't the point of this thread. Clearly there is a difference between pantheism (everything is God), deism (God is separate but uninvolved), and theism (God is separate but involved; though my question is how involved).

Your second and third paragraphs leave me with the feeling that you are saying that God is not entirely knowable with our finite capabilities, therefore we should not think too much about things that don't make sense to us and just trust that God is good and move on. Is that a fair interpretation?

Still open to hearing other perspectives as well if they want to post- thanks.
 
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Mark Quayle

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Mark, thanks for taking the time to respond.

Your first paragraph makes me confused about the difference between your perspective and pantheism (if there is no distinction between the Creator and the Created) though admittedly that isn't the point of this thread. Clearly there is a difference between pantheism (everything is God), deism (God is separate but uninvolved), and theism (God is separate but involved; though my question is how involved).

Your second and third paragraphs leave me with the feeling that you are saying that God is not entirely knowable with our finite capabilities, therefore we should not think too much about things that don't make sense to us and just trust that God is good and move on. Is that a fair interpretation?

Still open to hearing other perspectives as well if they want to post- thanks.

I don't believe in Pantheism --there is a huge distinction between Creator and Created (I'm wondering what I said that apparently implied otherwise). If God is the essence of matter and energy, indeed even reality itself, that by no means implies that matter, energy, reality or whatever creation is the essence of God.

...and...
While there is something to the idea that God is unknowable (i.e. "transcendent") and that there is a time to stop boggling the mind with too small an understanding and to trust his goodness (for eg see Ps 131 "Lord, my heart is not haughty,
Nor my eyes lofty. Neither do I
concern myself with great matters,
Nor with things too profound for me." and there are other such passages),
that wasn't really my point.

I have for years been unable, apparently, to get across the total "otherness" of God, and the effect of our small understanding and silly presuppositions we draw on to make our questions. If we were capable of seeing Him as He is, we wouldn't (for eg) have any doubt nor would we ask the questions we now do, concerning what some of us consider to be points of tension or paradoxes, such as free will vs sovereignty. *

To my thinking, it is impossible that there is a point at which "God does" and then stands aside to "allow Creation to do." On the other hand, to say that "Our doing is the same as God doing." is plainly mistaken. It would be more accurate to say, "Whatever [good] we do is because God is doing it." (I add the [good] there because I have an inability to reconcile my thoughts here with the inability of God to sin, yet even there I am comforted by the recognition that he is not governed by his rules for us --the sin of a deed is not defined by intrinsic goodness or badness of a deed, but by its rebellion. God doing (say, mass killing) what may look to us as the same thing he has proscribed for us (murder), is in fact quite a different thing. But I digress. The Word says God is not the author of sin. Therefore I want to swing wide of saying what seems to me logical, that he intimately causes every smallest detail and effect.)

(*) C.S. Lewis talks about our inability (by virtue of our ignorance and dependence on our worldview, if for no other reasons) to ask valid questions, in his "Myth retold", Till We Have Faces: "I saw well why the gods do not speak to us openly, nor let us answer. Till that word can be dug out of us, why should they hear the babble that we think we mean? How can they meet us face to face till we have faces?"
 
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questionman

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Mark, thanks again for your reply. I did not mean to accuse you of believing in pantheism, I only got confused between what you were saying and what I think pantheism to mean. If things have the same essence they are the same thing. I believe that's one argument of why Christ and the Father are both God. They share the same essence. I took the same meaning behind you saying nature has the same essence as God and there being no difference between the natural and the supernatural. Hopefully that clears up why I was confused.

I agree with you that there is a fundamental otherness of God that we can never fully comprehend.

Lastly, I love CS Lewis but have not read Myth retold (I didn't even know about it), so I definitely will read that. Thanks!
 
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If things have the same essence they are the same thing.

I expect you meant that in context of the rest of what you were saying. By itself, it is pretty much nonsense, I think. If all life is carbon based, or atomically constructed, or whatever of many other commonalities, it does not make us the same as a tree, except in those bare ways.

But furthermore, God is not "made up of" his essence (not that you said it that way, but) --that is as illogical to say as to claim he created himself.
 
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In thinking about answered prayer, one must start with God's sovereignty. What is the extent of his power/force over events in the universe (I am already assuming God created everything)? Does he directly cause no outcomes, all outcomes, or somewhere in between? How does natural law and human agency fit within the notion of meticulous sovereignty? What is the difference between sovereignty and causation? Or sovereignty and providence? Causation and delegation?
From what I read in Scripture, God's sovereignty means that God does things the way He chooses, and does not have to justify His actions to anyone. This does not mean that He is locked into particular policies, decrees, or courses of action that take the power of choice away from Himself.

In saying that, He is bound to His own moral law. That means that when He does something, He has to be righteous and be seen to be righteous in everything He does. This means that when He makes a definite promise, He will be totally faithful to keeping it. He cannot do otherwise, because it would be against His own moral law involving faithfulness to His own word.

He has promised to hear the prayers of His saints, and it will be His sovereign choice to answer yes, no, or wait. This means that a sick person can request healing from God, but God is not bound to heal that person if He has a definite reason not to, and if He decides not to heal, his reasons will be righteous, and although He can choose not to divulge them, He is above criticism, because He is the potter and we are the clay. Therefore, we have to accept that God has righteous reasons not to heal on request, even it is just to show that He is not a vending machine where we just press a prayer button and expect God to give us what we want at any time when we want it.

Where He has inspired a prophet to indicate historical events and rises of empires hundreds of years before they will happen, He will arrange circumstances to ensure that they will happen - but without interfering with individual automony of choice. The purpose of prophecy is to show beyond doubt that God is real and that His Word is absolutely true, because He said hundreds of years before historical events would happen, and they did happen almost down to the last detail.
 
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In saying that, He is bound to His own moral law. That means that when He does something, He has to be righteous and be seen to be righteous in everything He does. This means that when He makes a definite promise, He will be totally faithful to keeping it. He cannot do otherwise, because it would be against His own moral law involving faithfulness to His own word.

You seem to be of the opinion that he is bound to moral law because it is moral --not because he is. You seem to think that he chooses to be righteous, instead of being the very source of righteousness. As one old Reformer said, something like, "God does not choose to do good because it is good to do. What he does is good because God is good." "He has to be righteous" you say, as though he is under some obligation. No, righteous is what he does. He is under no obligation and no judgement.

Secondly, you have not defined "his own moral law" very well, here, it seems to me. If by that you mean that he is bound to the law he has given us, well, no, he is not. For eg if he says we should not kill, that by no means implies that he should not kill. Thus, what God does is not fettered in any way --he is by definition the source of his doing. He does not answer to any higher or overriding principle. These are all just constructions in our minds.

You say "He has to....be seen to be righteous...." By whom? I hope you mean to speak of the day when every knee will bow and every tongue confess, because until then most people will not see him as righteous.
 
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You seem to be of the opinion that he is bound to moral law because it is moral --not because he is. You seem to think that he chooses to be righteous, instead of being the very source of righteousness. As one old Reformer said, something like, "God does not choose to do good because it is good to do. What he does is good because God is good." "He has to be righteous" you say, as though he is under some obligation. No, righteous is what he does. He is under no obligation and no judgement.
Six of one and half a dozen of the other. God's moral law reflects His own righteousness, and it is clearly set out on the Scriptures. The Mosaic Law is just a version of it adapted to the Jews. But the attributes of love as set out in 1 Corinthians 13, and the list of the fruit of the Spirit in Galatians 5 gives us a good idea of what God's own righteousness is, and how we are to live in the light of it.

Also, there is an excellent book written by Charles Finney called, "The Attributes of Love". (And before you decide to rubbish Finney because you might not agree with him in general, take the time to read the Attributes to see if that describes God's righteousness to you).

Secondly, you have not defined "his own moral law" very well, here, it seems to me. If by that you mean that he is bound to the law he has given us, well, no, he is not. For eg if he says we should not kill, that by no means implies that he should not kill. Thus, what God does is not fettered in any way --he is by definition the source of his doing. He does not answer to any higher or overriding principle. These are all just constructions in our minds.
It is how the Bible describes Him. There are things that God cannot do. He cannot lie, or be unfaithful to His promises. He cannot go against Justice, and He cannot expect us to do anything that He does not do Himself (in the area of moral conduct).

You say "He has to....be seen to be righteous...." By whom? I hope you mean to speak of the day when every knee will bow and every tongue confess, because until then most people will not see him as righteous.
God doesn't have to defend Himself to anyone, especially those who think they can evaluate His Word by their own opinions.
 
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I said: You say "He has to....be seen to be righteous...." By whom? I hope you mean to speak of the day when every knee will bow and every tongue confess, because until then most people will not see him as righteous.
God doesn't have to defend Himself to anyone, especially those who think they can evaluate His Word by their own opinions.
I don't see how that answers my question; I could say the same thing to you.
 
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I said: You say "He has to....be seen to be righteous...." By whom? I hope you mean to speak of the day when every knee will bow and every tongue confess, because until then most people will not see him as righteous.

I don't see how that answers my question; I could say the same thing to you.
I don't have to defend God. All I have to do is just believe what He said.
 
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I don't have to defend God. All I have to do is just believe what He said.
Ok. Where did he say he has to be seen as righteous?

I'm not asking you to defend God. I'm asking you where you come up with your line of thinking --how you arrive at your conclusions. So, where does he say he "has to be seen as righteous"?
 
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Ok. Where did he say he has to be seen as righteous?

I'm not asking you to defend God. I'm asking you where you come up with your line of thinking --how you arrive at your conclusions. So, where does he say he "has to be seen as righteous"?

“Declare and set forth your case;
Indeed, let them consult together.
Who has announced this from of old?
Who has long since declared it?
Is it not I, the Lord?
And there is no other God besides Me,
A righteous God and a Savior;
There is none except Me"
(Isaiah 45:21).

"The heavens declare His righteousness,
And all the peoples have seen His glory"
(Psalm 97:6)

"But the Lord of hosts will be exalted in judgment,
And the holy God will show Himself holy in righteousness"
(Isaiah 5:16).

"but let him who boasts boast of this, that he understands and knows Me, that I am the Lord who exercises lovingkindness, justice and righteousness on earth; for I delight in these things,” declares the Lord" (Jeremiah 9:24).
 
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“Declare and set forth your case;
Indeed, let them consult together.
Who has announced this from of old?
Who has long since declared it?
Is it not I, the Lord?
And there is no other God besides Me,
A righteous God and a Savior;
There is none except Me"
(Isaiah 45:21).

"The heavens declare His righteousness,
And all the peoples have seen His glory"
(Psalm 97:6)

"But the Lord of hosts will be exalted in judgment,
And the holy God will show Himself holy in righteousness"
(Isaiah 5:16).

"but let him who boasts boast of this, that he understands and knows Me, that I am the Lord who exercises lovingkindness, justice and righteousness on earth; for I delight in these things,” declares the Lord" (Jeremiah 9:24).
Where does that say that the Lord has to be seen as righteous? It is true that it is hideous that he is contradicted concerning his righteousness (and other attributes) but he has for a time caused things to be as they are, that not all see him as righteous.
 
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Where does that say that the Lord has to be seen as righteous? It is true that it is hideous that he is contradicted concerning his righteousness (and other attributes) but he has for a time caused things to be as they are, that not all see him as righteous.
I think this may be splitting hairs over the choice of words. The fact is that the Lord is righteous in all His ways, therefore He has a moral code that may be different to what we think a moral code should be. But then, being totally righteous, He does all things right, even though we might not understand why He does, or allows certain things to happen.

The bottom line is that God is sovereign and does things His way, whether we approve or not. He doesn't seek our approval for what He decides to do, or allow. He Himself is the final judge of what He decides, and that there is no one else who is there to be His judge. This is shown in Hebrews 6:13: "When God made his promise to Abraham, since there was no one greater for him to swear by, he swore by himself".
 
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I think this may be splitting hairs over the choice of words. The fact is that the Lord is righteous in all His ways, therefore He has a moral code that may be different to what we think a moral code should be. But then, being totally righteous, He does all things right, even though we might not understand why He does, or allows certain things to happen.

The bottom line is that God is sovereign and does things His way, whether we approve or not. He doesn't seek our approval for what He decides to do, or allow. He Himself is the final judge of what He decides, and that there is no one else who is there to be His judge. This is shown in Hebrews 6:13: "When God made his promise to Abraham, since there was no one greater for him to swear by, he swore by himself".
I have no disagreement with that. My question has to do with the original statement, "he has to appear as righteous." (My emphasis).
 
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