FreeGrace2
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- Nov 15, 2012
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It appears you are rather unfamiliar with the Bible, and esp the OT. Salvation wasn't only for Jews prior to Christ. In fact, Abraham was the "father of all who believe". Romans 4 tells you all you need to know about how to be saved in the OT.If you were a Jew, you would understand this to mean gentiles too. = all men. Salvation was only of the Jews before this.
Isa 42:6 -
“I, the Lord, have called you in righteousness;
I will take hold of your hand.
I will keep you and will make you
to be a covenant for the people
and a light for the Gentiles,
Isa 49:6 - he says: “It is too small a thing for you to be my servant to restore the tribes of Jacob and bring back those of Israel I have kept. I will also make you a light for the Gentiles, that my salvation may reach to the ends of the earth.”
Matt 4:13-16
13 Leaving Nazareth, he went and lived in Capernaum, which was by the lake in the area of Zebulun and Naphtali—
14 to fulfill what was said through the prophet Isaiah:
15 “Land of Zebulun and land of Naphtali,
the Way of the Sea, beyond the Jordan,
Galilee of the Gentiles—
16 the people living in darkness
have seen a great light;
on those living in the land of the shadow of death
a light has dawned.”
You'd better believe that salvation was also for Gentiles who believed in the Messiah.
btw, Paul wrote the epistle to Titus between AD 63-65. And Titus was a pastor to Gentiles. So 2:11 wasn't even addressing Jews.
The argument
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