Septuagint theological implications

[godenver1]

Hi all,

I recently learned of the difference in translations between the Septuagint and other forms of the OT. Specifically, I wanted to point out these differences:

Leviticus 20:13 (NIV/More Protestant)
13 “‘If a man has sexual relations with a man as one does with a woman, both of them have done what is detestable. They are to be put to death; their blood will be on their own heads.

.

Vs

Septuagint:
And whoever shall lie with a male as with a woman, they have both wrought abomination; let them die the death, they are guilty.

Emphasis mine.

Does the difference in translation entail any theological implications? Is the God of the Septuagint more loving/less vengeful than the God of other OT translations, or is it simply two ways of saying the same thing?

Edit: Different translation

 

[Theophan]

Hi all,

I recently learned of the difference in translations between the Septuagint and other forms of the OT. Specifically, I wanted to point out these differences:

Leviticus 20:13 (NLT)
13 “If a man practices homosexuality, having sex with another man as with a woman, both men have committed a detestable act. They must both be put to death, for they are guilty of a capital offense.

Vs

Septuagint:
And whoever shall lie with a male as with a woman, they have both wrought abomination; let them die the death, they are guilty.

Emphasis mine.

Does the difference in translation entail any theological implications? Is the God of the Septuagint more loving/less vengeful than the God of other OT translations, or is it simply two ways of saying the same thing?

The Scriptures are Divinely inspired by the Holy Spirit. The Church, led by the Holy Spirit, canonized the Scriptures. The Church, also led by the Holy Spirit, rightly interprets the Scriptures.

The text does not determine who God is, the Church declares who God is (or is not) by the illumination of the Holy Spirit when expounding the Scriptures.

With regards to your literary question: you utilize a Masoretic English translation that is largely rejected by most Christians. Not sure what other English translations say. But I assume that the only way to fully note the differences in texts, you must compare the original languages, not translations.

 

[Radagast]

I recently learned of the difference in translations between the Septuagint and other forms of the OT. Specifically, I wanted to point out these differences:

Leviticus 20:13 (NIV/More Protestant)
13 “‘If a man has sexual relations with a man as one does with a woman, both of them have done what is detestable. They are to be put to death; their blood will be on their own heads.

Vs

Septuagint:
And whoever shall lie with a male as with a woman, they have both wrought abomination; let them die the death, they are guilty.

Most modern translations of the Bible (except special Orthodox ones) translate the OT from the Hebrew, not from the Septuagint -- although the Septuagint will usually be consulted, and sometimes used in preference to the Hebrew. The NIV, incidentally, is one of the best translations out there, although the ESV is a little better.

The Hebrew OT and the Septuagint do differ sometimes.

However, in this case, the Hebrew and the Septuagint say pretty much the same thing, and your English translation of the Septuagint (which I think is the one by L.C.L. Brenton) is a little odd. In the Greek Septuagint, both verses 12 and 13 both have the same emphatic imperative θανάτῳ θανατούσθωσαν = let them be put to death!

In the NETS, Dirk L. Büchner translates these words as "by death let them be put to death." That's a little clumsy, but it's better than Brenton.

If you must use an English translation of the Septuagint, I suggest you don't use Brenton. Consider using the NETS or the Orthodox Study Bible (although both of those are far from perfect). On the other hand, if you're not Orthodox, consider using the NIV or the ESV.

 

[Norbert L]

Hi all,

I recently learned of the difference in translations between the Septuagint and other forms of the OT. Specifically, I wanted to point out these differences:

Leviticus 20:13 (NIV/More Protestant)
13 “‘If a man has sexual relations with a man as one does with a woman, both of them have done what is detestable. They are to be put to death; their blood will be on their own heads.

.

Vs

Septuagint:
And whoever shall lie with a male as with a woman, they have both wrought abomination; let them die the death, they are guilty.

Emphasis mine.

Does the difference in translation entail any theological implications? Is the God of the Septuagint more loving/less vengeful than the God of other OT translations, or is it simply two ways of saying the same thing?

Edit: Different translation

We would specifically need to know what the translator meant in his mind thousands of years ago when he wrote let them die the death. Was it a referral to a distinct legislated form of death? Was it distinguishing what kind of death such as Jesus taught, "Do not be afraid of those who kill the body but cannot kill the soul. Instead, fear the one who is able to destroy both soul and body in hell Matthew" 10:28 NET? Otherwise we would be reading something into the text that was not there.

 

[Radagast]

We would specifically need to know what the translator meant in his mind thousands of years ago when he wrote let them die the death.

As I said, the Greek Septuagint doesn't actually say this -- it has the same emphatic imperative as in verse 12: θανάτῳ θανατούσθωσαν = let them be put to death!

Or, as Büchner has it, "by death let them be put to death."

 

[ArmyMatt]

seems like the same thing to me, even with the different translations in this regard.

 

[Dave G.]

I hope it's ok that I respond here, not against forum rules ?

No matter what it isn't good LOL ! But my Brenton is Greek with English and it says about a man laying down with another man "let them die the death". And it goes on to say that a man who is with a woman and her mother is to be burned and so burned "so no iniquity is among you". These are very strong words that I think fit the time frame.

One thing that is clear in every translation I looked up on Leviticus 20:13 and similar sexual sins, is "there blood is upon themselves". The same with incest, man with a woman and her mother etc.. It sound like real death in a period of time where people did this sort of thing.

 

[Tayla]

Does the difference in translation entail any theological implications?

I think there are many implications of differences with the Septuagint; for example, when a New Testament writer quotes from the Septuagint and it differs from the Hebrew Bible passage.

 

[Radagast]

I think there are many implications of differences with the Septuagint; for example, when a New Testament writer quotes from the Septuagint and it differs from the Hebrew Bible passage.

Yes, the Hebrew OT and the Greek Septuagint sometimes differ. But that's not what's going on here.

 

[Lukaris]

Much of this is tricky and I do not know what the precise context may be in many Old Testament cases. For ex. I have read some of the Antiquities of the 1st c. Pharisee; Josephus. In one case his rendering of a passage from the law often often taken as a death sentence for a witch refers actually to quackery in medicine (in the notes of 17th c. translator William Whiston). Josephus, himself, actually has a short homily praising the hospitality of the Witch of Endor to King Saul on his final night.

On my iPhone & on way to work, have trouble posting links in this situation.