xtxArchxAngelxtx said:
Theres no interpitation to it. It's direct wording.
Oh, really?
I grant that the English translations seem to be pretty straightforward -- but God didn't dictate any of the English translations (unless you happen to be one of the extremists among the KJV-only crowd, who apparently think He did, based on what I've read of their comments).
Now: The Leviticus 18 passage, I don't happen to offhand have the Hebrew memorized, but it translates roughly to "You shall not lie the lyings as with a woman with a man." (
Lie here having the meaning
recline as opposed to
prevaricate.) "No gay sex" is a reasonable
interpretation of what that means, but it's hardly "direct wording."
Then we get to the word Paul used twice that is customarily translated "homosexual":
arsenokaitis (pl. -ites). It appears to mean something like "man-bedder" or "man-coucher" and again the translation may be a reasonable one -- but the fact of the matter is that from the time of Homer until I Corinthians was written, the enormous quantity of Greek literature: Socrates, Plato, Aristotle, Homer, Hesiod, Pindar, Sophocles, Aeschylus, Euripides, Aristophanes, Xenophon, Philo, Ptolemy -- that word never occurs, even in contexts like Aristophanes poking ridicule at old men seeking out boys for love, where you'd expect it to show up. And in Greek from Paul's time on, nearly every occasion in which it's used is someone either quoting Paul or commenting on his writings. In short, "homosexual" is a "best-guess" rendering of what the word was supposed to mean, taken almost entirely from its derivation and context. To be sure, Greek-English dictionaries will list it as meaning that -- but that's because they're basing the definition on the same educated guesswork.
And in any case, the contexts in which Paul makes reference to homosexuality are, I believe, always in the context of denunciations of various self-serving vices and behaviors. Certainly that's the case in Romans and I Corinthians. It's a quite reasonable reading of the denunciations to make them parallel fornication and promiscuity -- slaking one's lust. Paul was a bit of an ascetic, personally, but understood human nature enough to discuss at length what a Christian marriage ought to be. And not once does he condemn healthy marital sex -- the purpose for which our sexuality was created by a gracious God. Is it an unreasonable reading to believe that
arsenokaites refers to those who
gratify their lust through homosexual acts?
And if that is the case, then in what way does it apply to moral gay people who seek to share their lives together in covenanted union with the person they love? Certainly "fornication" and "whoredoms" and the other vivid Scriptural condemnations of sexual license do not apply to a married couple's sex life!