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Having read the various views of the 1000yr period in Revelation in different Denominations of Christianity, I decided to translate and study on the verses in Reve 20 which shows it.
According to this, it appears there may be 2 different periods as verse 2 shows the "evil-one" is bound for a 1000yrs.
I would think that if the Lord wanted it to be one event, He would have written it as "and he bound AND cast him into the abyss. Anyone have any views on this? Thanks.
Reve 20:2 And he seizes the Dragon, the serpent, the ancient, who is a Devil, and [the] Satan/Adversary. And he binds him a thousand years.
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Hi LLoJ,
Following up here via the link you kindly posted in the Peter's Not the Rock! thread. These verses have been of interest to me as well. Generally speaking, in studies like this, I try to take a passage as it reads, within the context of the surrounding material. Following that approach, the prima facie meaning appears to be as follows:
1. The 1,000 years occurs immediately following the Second Coming, which is described in the last section of ch. 19.
2. Satan is seized and bound at the same time, as I do not find any textual warrant for separating the two actions. The seizing is for the purpose of binding. Nor do I see any reference to some other time period, just the 1,000 years.
As for the nature of the 'binding,' and the identity/location of the 'bottomless pit,' that is an interesting study as well.
Best regards,
Dave
Having read the various views of the 1000yr period in Revelation in different Denominations of Christianity, I decided to translate and study on the verses in Reve 20 which shows it.
According to this, it appears there may be 2 different periods as verse 2 shows the "evil-one" is bound for a 1000yrs.
I would think that if the Lord wanted it to be one event, He would have written it as "and he bound AND cast him into the abyss. Anyone have any views on this? Thanks.
Reve 20:2 And he seizes the Dragon, the serpent, the ancient, who is a Devil, and [the] Satan/Adversary. And he binds him a thousand years.
http://www.gotquestions.org/amillennialism.html
.........According to Amillennialism, the millennium of Revelation 20:16 is being fulfilled spiritually in the present age before the return of Jesus Christ.Thus, the millennium or kingdom of Christ is in existence now.
Amillennialists affirm that the millennium began with the resurrection and/or ascension of Christ and will be consummated when Jesus returns again to establish the Eternal Kingdom that is discussed in Revelation 2122........................
Thank you bro!Well, the number 8 is often shown to mean perfection, because its even greater than 7 which is another Biblically significant number and is used like 50 times in Revelation.
I think that 8 is also significant, because God commanded Abraham to circumsise his children on the 8th day after their birth.
I've heard that if you do gematria on Jesus's name in greek, it comes out as 888.
Wow. That's cool.
Interesting. Thank you for respondingOK, I have read what you are saying and this is the way I see it.
IMO, based on the equation of time difference between our time and God's time given to us by Apostle Peter.
It was at the end of SEVEN THOUSAND years that we are cast out of the Garden of Eden in Gen.
It took 6,000 years of our time to create and God rested for the next 1,000 years.
The ONLY reason why the "1,000 years" is specifically listed is because it is the second Sabbath.
For that 1,000 years that are spoken of in Rev. 20, God will be able to rest from all the work that He and we have been in for the past 6,000 years.
His word demands it, being the same yesterday, today and forever...
We are very close to the end of the 6,000 years since the day that we were cast out of Eden.
IMO
His servant
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