Having read the various views of the 1000yr period in Revelation in different Denominations of Christianity, I decided to translate and study on the verses in Reve 20 which shows it.
According to this, it appears there may be 2 different periods as verse 2 shows the "evil-one" is bound for a 1000yrs.
I would think that if the Lord wanted it to be one event, He would have written it as "and he bound AND cast him into the abyss. Anyone have any views on this? Thanks.
Reve 20:2 And he seizes the Dragon, the serpent, the ancient, who is a Devil, and [the] Satan/Adversary. And he binds him a thousand years.
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Hi LLoJ,
Following up here via the link you kindly posted in the Peter's Not the Rock! thread. These verses have been of interest to me as well. Generally speaking, in studies like this, I try to take a passage as it reads, within the context of the surrounding material. Following that approach, the prima facie meaning appears to be as follows:
1. The 1,000 years occurs immediately following the Second Coming, which is described in the last section of ch. 19.
2. Satan is seized and bound at the same time, as I do not find any textual warrant for separating the two actions. The seizing is for the purpose of binding. Nor do I see any reference to some other time period, just the 1,000 years.
As for the nature of the 'binding,' and the identity/location of the 'bottomless pit,' that is an interesting study as well.
Best regards,
Dave