For consideration ...
1.) Abraham was declared righteous for his faith, BEFORE demonstrating his obedience in the offering of Isaac.
Abraham was justified in Genesis 12:1-5 when he obeyed the call to go to the land where he would receive his inheritance (Hebrews 11:8), he was justified in Genesis 15:6 when he believed God (Romans 4:1-5), and he was justified in Genesis 22 when he offered Isaac (James 2:21-24, Hebrews 11:17). All of the examples of people doing works by faith listed in Hebrews 11 are of justifying faith, Abraham was listed twice, and none of the examples are of believing something before acting, but rather we can know when someone believes something based entirely on the way that they act, and Abraham acted in a way that showed trust in God's promise.
2.) The original author of the Genesis narrative says that Abraham was declared righteous because of his faith (i.e. he believed God).
Obedience to any set of instructions is about putting our faith in the one who gave them to rightly guide us (Proverbs 3:1-7). God is trustworthy therefore His instruction are also trustworthy (Psalms 19:7), so following God's instructions is the way to trust God and it is contradictory to trust God while not trusting in what God has instructed. This is why there are many verses that connect our faith in God with our obedience to God's instructions, such as Matthew 23:23, where Jesus said that faith is one of the weightier matters of the law. In Romans 1:5, we have received grace in order to bring about the obedience of faith. In Romans 3:31, our faith upholds God's law. In James 2:18, he would show his faith by his works. In Revelation 14:12, those who kept faith in Jesus are the same as those who kept God's commandments, so again al of God's instructions teach us how to have faith in Him. So again the same faith by which Abraham was justified was also expressed as obedience to God's instructions.
3.) Romans 2 (i.e. "all of the world is guilty of breaking the Law) ... is the setup for Romans 3 (we are now saved via Christ's own righteousness).
Christ expressed his righteousness by living in obedience to God's instructions, so following his example through faith is the way that we are saved through his righteousness. Christ is the exact image of God's nature (Hebrews 1:3), so among other things, he is the embodiment or personification of righteousness, so there is no righteousness apart from the nature of who He is and all righteous acts are expressing, experiencing, loving, believing in, and testifying about the nature of who he is.
4.) Paul taught in Romans 3 ... that there is no salvific effect of any obedience to the Law.
While there are many verses that teach that we do not earn our salvation as the result of our obedience to God, there are also many verses that show that our salvation requires us to choose to obey Him, such as Hebrews 5:9, where Jesus has become a source of eternal salvation for those who obey Him, so there must be correct reasons why our salvation requires us to choose to be doers of the law other than than the incorrect reason of trying to earn it as a wage.
Our salvation is from sin and sin is disobeying God's instructions, so while Paul taught we do not earn our salvation as the result of obeying God's instructions, he also taught that living in obedience to them through faith in Christ is the content of his gift of saving us from not living in obedience to them. In Romans 6:19-23, we are no longer to present ourselves as slaves to impurity, lawlessness, and sin, but are now to present ourselves as slaves to God and to righteousness leading to sanctification, and the goal of sanctification is eternal life in Christ, which is the gift of God, so the experience of being in Christ through living in obedience to God's law is the content of His gift of eternal life.
5.) Scripture is clear that we obtain righteousness through Christ ... and NOT through any righteous acts which we may perform.
I agree. 1 can lead to 2 and 1 can lead to 3 while 2 does not lead to 3, so the same faith can lead to justification that leads to being a doer of the law while being a doer of the law does not result in earning our justification. Christ is God's word made flesh, so righteousness through the one who is the embodiment of God's word is the same as righteousness through us embodying God's word, but we do not earn our righteousness as the result of us embodying God's word.
6.) The Torah/Law was given at God's initiative in Exodus 24 (i.e. before the passage you cite in Exodus 33).
Exodus is not strictly in chronological order, such as with the Israelites keeping the Sabbath in Exodus 16 before it was given in Exodus 20 or with Jethro giving advice in Exodus 18 about how to make judgements concerning the law that was spoken about being given later in Exodus. Furthermore, in Psalms 119:29, he wanted God to be gracious to him by teaching him to obey the Torah, which was long after Sinai. There is a difference between knowing about which things God has commanded and knowing the experience expressing aspects of God's nature through obeying them. In accordance with Exodus 33:13, Moses wanted for God to teach him how to have the experience of knowing Him, which again is the experience of eternal life (John 17:3). The way to have the experience of knowing God is through acting in accordance with God's nature, which is why aspects of God's nature were listed in Exodus 34:6-7.
7.) God expresses (through the writer of the letter to the Hebrews) that the Israelites FAILED to keep the Covenant of the Law that He made with them. Is your contention counter to this ?
In regard to Israel's redemption cycle, the good kings tended to live for much longer than the evil kings did, so even though there were more evil kings, the they were under a good king for a majority of the time, which is far from a complete failure to keep the Mosaic Covenant, through their disobedience nevertheless did get bad enough to the point of being exiled and needing a New Covenant where they would return from exile, God would circumcise their hearts, and where they would return to obedience to the Mosaic Law (Deuteronomy 30:1-10, Ezekiel 36:26-27, Jeremiah 31:33).
8.) You often speak as if there were not (2) distinct Covenants discussed in Scripture. The Old Covenant (established between God and the OT Israelites) ... and the New Covenant (established between God and all believers). Hebrews 8 is clear that the Old Covenant (established on the Law/Torah) is inferior and ready to vanish away, ... and that the New superior Covenant of Grace (i.e. I will FORGIVE their sin) is now in force.
One thing makes another thing obsolete by doing everything that it does plus more, so the New Covenant still involves following the Torah (Hebrews 8:10) plus it is distinct from the Mosaic Covenant by being based on better promises and having a superior mediator (Hebrews 8:6-7). However, in Jeremiah 31:33, the New Covenant is only made with the house of Judah and the house of Israel, so the New Covenant is made between the same parties and is not one of the ways in which it is distinct. The way to act in accordance with God's nature is straightforwardly based on God's nature, not on a particular covenant, so any number of covenants can be made or become obsolete while the way to act in accordance with God's eternal nature remains the same, which is why the New Covenant still involves following the Torah.