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What are you getting at? Are you trying to show that God created Lucifer and just because he fell and became Satan, that means God still created the devil? Spell it out man!Has he always existed?
I'm not home right now. I will address this in more detail. Question for you. Do you believe that God has a plan of Redemption?
I beg to differ. Paul is the Apostle of the Gentiles. Paul in the book of Romans told the Jews that they are in the same book as the Gentiles. Under the curse of the Law due to sin. Paul was stripping away their so-called righteous acts; saying none are righteous, no one does good. That there is no separation between Jew & Gentiles. In Ephesians Paul again is addressing our plight before a holy God. By our walking in disobedience and our desires to the flesh. We are DEAD in trespasses & sins. So God elects us to be made ALIVE IN CHRIST.
Here is another passage for you, since you did not understand Ephesians.
It is because of HIM, that you are in Christ Jesus, who has become for us wisdom from God--- that is, our righteousness, holiness and redemption. 1 Cor. 1:30
It is because of WHO, that you are in Christ Jesus?
For more confirmation, faith comes through HIM alone.Does not discount or disprove that faith comes from God. It is not self-manifested. To add:
Ephesians 2:8
For it is by grace you have been saved, through faith—and this is not from yourselves, it is the gift of God—
For more confirmation, faith comes through HIM alone.I've read much evidence to suggest it's salvation that's being talked about in Ephesians 2 as the subject of the verse. Not the faith. Salvation is not of ourselves or anything we did to bring it about except believe. But even if it was insisted that it's talking about faith. Still doesn't mean God hasn't provided it to all if they choose to believe the gospel. I could quote you faith comes by hearing and hearing by the word of God and the gospel is to be preached to every creature. I do favor the first explanation though that salvation was the subject under discussion for the gift of God has always been defined as Salvation and eternal life. Romans 6:23
Before jumping to other passages, please explain where you believe i have Ephesians 1 wrong. Clearly at the time Paul wrote the letter there were Jewish people and Gentile people in the world. I showed you from the grammar and the context that Paul is addressing this church as two groups of people, Jews and Gentiles
If you go back and read my earlier post I explained how Paul opens the letter to the saints in Ephesus and the faithful in Jesus Christ. That's two groups. Then in verses 3-12 he gives a praise to God for what He's done for Israel. Then in verse 13 he switches his attention to the Gentiles. The book is about how the two are brought together.11Therefore remember that formerly you, the Gentiles in the flesh, who are called “Uncircumcision” by the so-called “Circumcision,” which is performed in the flesh by human hands—12remember that you were at that time separate from Christ, excluded from the commonwealth of Israel, and strangers to the covenants of promise, having no hope and without God in the world. (Ephesians 2:11-12)
1For this reason I, Paul, the prisoner of Christ Jesus for the sake of you Gentiles— (Ephesians 3:1)
Ephesians is addressed to a Gentile audience. Ephesians 2:9 is a dead give away.
17So this I say, and affirm together with the Lord, that you walk no longer just as the Gentiles also walk, in the futility of their mind,18being darkened in their understanding, excluded from the life of God because of the ignorance that is in them, because of the hardness of their heart; (Ephesians 4:17-18)
For the bible itself's explanation on election go to : Romans 9(11-23)I do not have a problem with God's Election. I have been debating with another poster. She does have a problem with Election. So we are starting this new thread to get everyone's take on it.
"The big problem I have with election is that it changes the nature of a loving God." by GodsGrace101
One group:If you go back and read my earlier post I explained how Paul opens the letter to the saints in Ephesus and the faithful in Jesus Christ. That's two groups. Then in verses 3-12 he gives a praise to God for what He's done for Israel. Then in verse 13 he switches his attention to the Gentiles. The book is about how the two are brought together.
I believe in God's election.For the bible itself's explanation on election go to : Romans 9(11-23)
If you go back and read my earlier post I explained how Paul opens the letter to the saints in Ephesus and the faithful in Jesus Christ. That's two groups.
It has to be two groups though. If it's just one group it means the following verses apply to individual election and would totally refute corporate election. You better find a version that agrees with the proposition.The Greek is pretty clear that it's one group, and most translations show this:
CSB: Paul, an apostle of Christ Jesus by God’s will: To the faithful saints in Christ Jesus at Ephesus.
ESV: Paul, an apostle of Christ Jesus by the will of God, To the saints who are in Ephesus, and are faithful in Christ Jesus:
NASB: Paul, an apostle of Christ Jesus by the will of God, To the saints who are at Ephesus and who are faithful in Christ Jesus:
NIV: Paul, an apostle of Christ Jesus by the will of God, To God’s holy people in Ephesus, the faithful in Christ Jesus:
This is a huge subject and probably only a test of me in the end. However, I am going to assume you are familair with the scripture because the whole of the Bible presents the view that I am going to share on his sovereignity. If a man is satisfied with extracting one verse and making it say what the rest of the book denys, then this is going to be disappointing. I go by the whole book. So I am going to refer to events and God's deeds at those points in time without quoting it. If you need the references as you are unfamilar with the accounts, I will provide that.How does God's sovereignty operate? Please provide Scriptures.
Thanks
The Greek is pretty clear that it's one group, and most translations show this:
CSB: Paul, an apostle of Christ Jesus by God’s will: To the faithful saints in Christ Jesus at Ephesus.
ESV: Paul, an apostle of Christ Jesus by the will of God, To the saints who are in Ephesus, and are faithful in Christ Jesus:
NASB: Paul, an apostle of Christ Jesus by the will of God, To the saints who are at Ephesus and who are faithful in Christ Jesus:
NIV: Paul, an apostle of Christ Jesus by the will of God, To God’s holy people in Ephesus, the faithful in Christ Jesus:
Saints are both jewish Christians and gentile Christians. The letter was written not to jewish converts, but it was written to gentile believers for the most part. Paul also shows in Ephesians 2 that there is now one new man in Christ, no longer a jew or a gentile.Do you believe that the NASB has more authority than the Greek text? I showed from the text that Paul is referring to two groups. So, which carries more weight, the Greek text or the translation of it? I've also shown where Paul tells us that the saints are the Jews.
Once again you just ignore everything I post and continue with your dogma. Please address what I posted from Paul use or first and second person plural pronouns.Saints are both jewish Christians and gentile Christians. The letter was written not to jewish converts, but it was written to gentile believers for the most part. Paul also shows in Ephesians 2 that there is now one new man in Christ, no longer a jew or a gentile.
For reference, and notice Paul is speaking to the gentiles here.
11 Wherefore remember, that once ye, the Gentiles in the flesh, who are called Uncircumcision by that which is called Circumcision, in the flesh, made by hands; 12 that ye were at that time separate from Christ, alienated from the commonwealth of Israel, and strangers from the covenants of the promise, having no hope and without God in the world.
13 But now in Christ Jesus ye that once were far off are made nigh in the blood of Christ.
14 For he is our peace, who made both one, and brake down the middle wall of partition, 15 having abolished in the flesh the enmity, [even] the law of commandments [contained] in ordinances; that he might create in himself of the two one new man, [so] making peace; 16 and might reconcile them both in one body unto God through the cross, having slain the enmity thereby:17 and he came and preached peace to you that were far off, and peace to them that were nigh: 18 for through him we both have our access in one Spirit unto the Father.
19 So then ye are no more strangers and sojourners, but ye are fellow-citizens with the saints, and of the household of God, 20being built upon the foundation of the apostles and prophets, Christ Jesus himself being the chief corner stone; 21 in whom each several building, fitly framed together, groweth into a holy temple in the Lord; 22 in whom ye also are builded together for a habitation of God in the Spirit.
Has he always existed?
Sorry but your so wrong again, I can only respond in a logical way that makes sense according to the scripture.Once again you just ignore everything I post and continue with your dogma. Please address what I posted from Paul use or first and second person plural pronouns.