Condsiderng that hyper-futurists beliee that no "end times" prophecy has ever been fulfilled, then they necessarily become partial preterists even they acknowledge that anythng our Lord said on Olivet has happened. They must deny history to maintain their extraordinarily silly doctrine.
Some of what some futurists believe to be future, such as a rebuilt temple, animal sacrificing resuming, then being put to an end yet again, I reject those things myself though I too believe the 70th week is still future, or at least the final half anyway. There's more than one way to interpret things. Everything doesn't have to be interpreted in a literal sense everytime. Which is a mistake both Preterists and Futurists make at times by treating something not meant to be taken literally, literal.
An example, 2 Thessalanians 2:4. Some Preterists take the temple of God literally, that it is referring to the 2nd temple before it was destroyed. Some futurists also take it literally, but that it is meaning one that will be rebuilt in the future. But that is not the only way to understand that verse, that it has to be taken in the literal sense. Nowhere in that entire chapter is there support that this is involving the literal city Jerusalem and a literal temple there. Jerusalem is not mentioned one single time in that chapter.
Does the following support that a literal temple in Jerusalem is in view in verse 4?
2 Thessalonians 2:1 Now we beseech you, brethren, by the coming of our Lord Jesus Christ, and by our gathering together unto him,
2 That ye be not soon shaken in mind, or be troubled, neither by spirit, nor by word, nor by letter as from us, as that the day of Christ is at hand.
3 Let no man deceive you by any means: for that day shall not come, except there come a falling away first, and that man of sin be revealed, the son of perdition;
2 Thessalonians 2:7 For the mystery of iniquity doth already work: only he who now letteth will let, until he be taken out of the way.
8 And then shall that Wicked be revealed, whom the Lord shall consume with the spirit of his mouth, and shall destroy with the brightness of his coming:
9 Even him, whose coming is after the working of Satan with all power and signs and lying wonders,
10 And with all deceivableness of unrighteousness in them that perish; because they received not the love of the truth, that they might be saved.
11 And for this cause God shall send them strong delusion, that they should believe a lie:
12 That they all might be damned who believed not the truth, but had pleasure in unrighteousness.
That's pretty much the entire chapter, and that there is zero evidence in these verses showing verse 4 is involving a literal temple in Jerusalem.
And notice in verse 10, this----the working of Satan with all power and signs and lying wonders. Then compare that with what is recorded in Matthew 24 and also Revelation 13, to name a few.
Matthew 24:24 For there shall arise false Christs, and false prophets,
and shall shew great signs and wonders; insomuch that, if it were possible, they shall deceive the very elect.
Revelation 13:13 And he doeth great wonders, so that he maketh fire come down from heaven on the earth in the sight of men,
14 And deceiveth them that dwell on the earth by the means of those miracles which he had power to do in the sight of the beast; saying to them that dwell on the earth, that they should make an image to the beast, which had the wound by a sword, and did live.
If, though 2 Thessalanians 2 involves a temple of God, but that nothing in that entire chapter supports that it is involving a literal temple, why should one think Matthew 24:24 is involving a literal temple? Is not verse 24 meaning during the time of verses 15-21 in Matthew 24?