Maybe I should clarify myself. I believe God makes himself known to us and it's only through his grace and his son, our Saviour in which we can be saved.
However, there were conditions placed on our salvation, and we have been given free moral agency to decide whether or not to follow God's law.
For example:
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[*]Romans 10:12,13 "For there is no difference between the Jew and the Greek: for the same Lord over all is rich unto all that call upon him. For whosoever shall call upon the name of the Lord shall be saved." This is a choice and shows that we have free will.
[*]
The Greek word interpreted whosoever is pas which also means all. The word whosoever is a word that excludes, where the word all does not exclude.
The word
"whosoever" ishould be rendered "all"; in the original it is the word usually rendered all throughout the New Testament; it occurs hundreds of times, and it is rendered "all" in over nine hundred instances, and whosoever in only about forty; the rendering all then is plainly the usual one.
- Matthew 23:27 talks about how Jerusalem rejected Jesus out of their own choice.
Jesus had not died yet. Salvation comes by the blood of Jesus.
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[*]Luke 18:22,23, the rich man walks away from a direct call from Jesus.
[*]
Again
Luke 18:22-23 is not addressing salvation or freewill for Jesus had not died yet it is addressing the extremes of how riches of our mind can overtake our mindset.
Luke 18:22-23
King James Version (KJV)
22Now when Jesus heard these things, he said unto him, Yet lackest thou one thing: sell all that thou hast, and distribute unto the poor, and thou shalt have treasure in heaven: and come, follow me. 23And when he heard this, he was very sorrowful: for he was very rich.
In fact any command, we can choose to ignore or obey and this is evidence of free will. So by obeying the Lord's commands we have been promised that we can have salvation in him. For those who do not, do not enter into salvation.
I gave you four examples of God's Word that totally counter that man has a freewill towards salvation yet you show us these examples that do not address man's salvation or caranl man having a free will or choice. Do not these verses totally refute man has a frewwill or choice?
Here they are again:
Eph 2:1-9 gives a clear view in context how the salvation process is accomplished in carnal man.
Eph, 2:1 And you hath he quickened, who were dead in trespasses and sins;
2Wherein in time past ye walked according to the course of this world, according to the prince of the power of the air, the spirit that now worketh in the children of disobedience:
3Among whom also we all had our conversation in times past in the lusts of our flesh, fulfilling the desires of the flesh and of the mind; and were by nature the children of wrath, even as others.
4But God, who is rich in mercy, for his great love wherewith he loved us,
5Even when we were dead in sins, hath quickened us together with Christ, (by grace ye are saved
6And hath raised us up together, and made us sit together in heavenly places in Christ Jesus:
7That in the ages to come he might shew the exceeding riches of his grace in his kindness toward us through Christ Jesus.
8For by grace are ye saved through faith; and that not of yourselves: it is the gift of God:
9Not of works, lest any man should boast
And then we have:
John 6:44 No man can come to me, except the Father which hath sent me draw
1 Corinthians 2:13-15 (amp)
    14But the natural, nonspiritual man does not accept or welcome or admit into his heart the gifts and teachings and revelations of the Spirit of God, for they are folly (meaningless nonsense) to him; and he is incapable of knowing them [of progressively recognizing, understanding, and becoming better acquainted with them] because they are spiritually discerned and estimated and appreciated.
Romans 3: 11 There is none that understandeth, there is none that seeketh after God.