Just ignore John 5:28-29, and Revelation 20:11-15 parallel teachings right
Believe it or not, I'm trying to reason through these things is all. That's why I asked why is the text saying 'many' rather than 'all', if it is meaning all? This same Hebrew word doesn't mean 'all' in the next verse like I pointed out. Apparently no one disputes that it is not meaning 'all' in verse 3. Shouldn't one come to the same conclusion about verse 2 as well? If per verse 2 all of the righteous rise, and some of the unrighteous as well, but not all of the unrighteous, that adds up to many and not all. I have a theory why some of the unrighteous also might rise at that time, but not all of them. These would be the goats, the same ones Jesus said the following to.
Luke 9:27 But I tell you of a truth, there be some standing here, which shall not taste of death, till they see the kingdom of God.
How do they taste of death? When they are raised in order to be present at the sheep and goats judgment, instead of inheriting the kingdom, they are cast into the LOF instead.
Luke 9:26 For whosoever shall be ashamed of me and of my words, of him shall the Son of man be ashamed, when he shall come in his own glory, and in his Father's, and of the holy angels.
This gives us the timing of verse 27 above, thus also connects with the following in Matthew 25.
Matthew 25:30
And cast ye the unprofitable servant into outer darkness: there shall be weeping and gnashing of teeth.
31
When the Son of man shall come in his glory, and all the holy angels with him, then shall he sit upon the throne of his glory:
32 And before him shall be gathered all nations: and he shall separate them one from another, as a shepherd divideth his sheep from the goats:
33 And he shall set the sheep on his right hand, but the goats on the left.