Thank you for your thoughtful reply. You are asking great questions. These conversations need to be had, and I thank you for that. I will do my best to respond.
Thanks for your humility. And ditto.
This confession is thoroughly Calvinistic. This shows me one of two things (if not both!): 1) you misunderstand the statement of the confession (I will address below) and 2)quite possibly you have been misled, misinformed, or caused to believe a caricature of what Reformed theology teaches. That being said, let's look carefully at the statement in paragraph one:
"God has endued the will of man with that natural liberty and power of acting upon choice, that it is neither forced, nor by any necessity of nature determined to do good or evil."
This does not say that man is "free to sin or not to sin." You are too quickly jumping to conclusions upon a cursory reading of the statement. Look very carefully at each word, for they were crafted with the utmost care and intention. It does not say that man is free to choose, but only free to act upon choice. This is a subtle, yet massive, difference. Do you see it? Even further, this choice is not forced, for, again, force means against the will, but we in our fallen state sin willfully and joyfully. What's more is that it is not even "by any necessity of nature determined to do good or evil." What does this mean? It means that man in his created nature (not his fallen, corrupted nature) is not of necessity determined to do good or evil, because he is not in bondage. However, we are fallen, dead in sins, and are held captive and in bondage by sin, and are thus only able to sin unless restored by regeneration and, eventually, glorification, in which case we will be, as the confession wonderfully states, "made perfectly and immutably free to good alone in the state of glory only." Notice the confession defines freedom (true freedom!) the ability "to do good alone."
You seem to say that man isn't free to choose but free to act upon his choice, and then say the choice isn't forced, indicating that he's free. Which is it? Also, saying a person is free to act but not free to choose makes no sense, given that free choice implies free acts: each choice is a choice as to an action.
And I don't think it's merely a matter of being free to sin or not sin. First of all, there's no middle ground between faith and sin; whatever is not of faith is sin (Romans 14:23, and this verse is a general principle, even though it refers to eating), and even if this verse didn't exist, it's a little screwy to imagine that there are actions that aren't done in relation to God but also aren't sin. Second, the real crux is whether a person can accept or reject saving grace, not so much whether he has the freedom to sin or not (assuming even that there is such a vacuous middle ground between faith and sin). If man is born in sin and can't help being in sin because he can't accept faith on his own power (i.e., because irresistible grace makes salvation entirely a God-ordained thing), then he shouldn't be blamed for not being able to accept a salvation he isn't able to accept.
Every fallen human being every waking moment of their life before regeneration. For a good Scriptural example, read Romans chapter 1.
So Romans 1 paints a picture of people not resisting grace? If so, this makes this type of grace useless to our discussion, since we're talking about grace unto salvation.
He does not command A to do X and at the same time command him not to do X. Where did you see this in Scripture? The failure here is to see the difference between God's prescription (command) versus God's purpose. As Scripture says, "The secret things belong unto the LORD our God: but those things which are revealed belong unto us and to our children for ever, that we may do all the words of this law" (Deut. 29:29). What do we do with a passage like Acts chapter 4?
I'm not seeing it in scripture, but you're saying you do see it in scripture, such that God is overriding someone's will and then blaming them for doing so, which indicates a contradiction.
God commands all men everywhere not to kill, yet it is clear that Jesus' murder (the slaughtering of the only innocent man to ever live, no less) was purposed by God's very will. What do we say to this?
I don't have anything against God overriding a person's will for his purpose, so long as he takes responsibility for this action, and it seems like Acts 4 makes it clear that he was taking responsibility, given it indicated that it was God's will that predestined these things. Also, remember that Jesus said very clearly that nobody takes his life from him, but that he has the power to do so (John 10:18), which would seem to indicate that "predestination" in Acts 4 doesn't mean God is overriding wills, but perhaps using the wills that human beings already had and integrating them with his plan.
This is an assumption, and an imposed standard upon the interpretation of Scripture. How do you affirm original sin, then (I assume you do)? Romans chapter 5 says that we are guilty (i.e., responsible) for something we ourselves did not do (I sure didn't eat the fruit!). This is merely bringing human law in to bear upon spiritual matters, and that, I believe, is unwarranted. Sure, we men must not hold each other responsible for things over which we had no (even little) control. However, God many times holds grandchildren responsible for their grandfathers' sins (Ex. 20:5-6, 34:6-7; Num. 14:18) and, again, in Romans chapter 5 we are all held responsible for the sin of one ancient, long-dead man.
No, that's not an assumption, that's morphology -- that's understanding what a word means. Romans 5 doesn't say anything about responsibility, but only about condemnation from sin, which can easily be understood as the condemnation to death that sin intrinsically brings upon anyone who practices it, regardless of the question of freedom.
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