Let's Talk About Hell (3)

[createdtoworship]

I guess you do not know your Centuries? Do you know the difference between minuscule and Uncial? Look, No spaces, No paragraphs, No chapters, and No verses: ΟΙΑΔΕΛΦΟΙΚΑΙΕΠΙΣΚΟΠΟΣΕΝΗΜΕΡΑΙΣ
http://www.nativlang.com/greek-language/ancient-greek-writing.php#h32

Minuscule 61 (in the Gregory-Aland numbering; Soden's δ 603), known as Codex Montfortianus, Erasmus named it Codex Britannicus, is a Greek minuscule manuscript of the New Testament on paper. Dated to the early 16th century, though a 15th century date is possible on paleographic grounds

The Greek text of the Gospels and Acts of this codex is a representative of the Byzantine text-type, Aland placed it n Category V.

It was the first Greek manuscript discovered that contains the Comma Johanneum in 1 John 5:7-8. It was copied from a 10th century manuscript at Lincoln College, Oxford, that did not have the Comma. The Comma was inserted from the Latin.
Bart D. Ehrman identified this reading as Orthodox corrupt reading

Bart D. Ehrman, The Orthodox Corruption of Scripture, Oxford University Press, Oxford 1993, p. 60.

F. H. A. Scrivener, A Plain Introduction to the Criticism of the New Testament (George Bell & Sons: London, 1894), vol. 1, p. 200.

Bruce M. Metzger, Bart D. Ehrman, The Text of the New Testament: Its Transmission, Corruption and Restoration, (Oxford University Press, 2005), p. 86.

629 – XIV Century – Vatican Library, Ottob. Gr. 298 629 contains the Acts, Catholics, and Pauline epistles entire. Greek/Latin diglot (the Latin is a typical late vulgate text).

918 XVI Century – Escorial, Σ. I. 5. cursive manuscript does contain 1John 5:7

2318 XVIII Century – Bucharest, Romania, Akad, 318 (234)

2473 XVII Century- Athens, National Library Taphu 545

NT Manuscripts 501-1000

it is not found (a) in the Old Latin in its early form (Tertullian Cyprian Augustine), or in the Vulgate (b) as issued by Jerome (codex Fuldensis [copied a.d. 541-46]

I hardly look at bart eerman as a source for truth, He doesn't even believe in the Bible. Just look at his recent books if you don't believe me. \

 

[createdtoworship]

how do you know what manuscripts are copied from what manuscripts? Where you there, did you ask them?

 

[he-man]

how do you know what manuscripts are copied from what manuscripts? Where you there, did you ask them?

SEE HERE> http://www.skypoint.com/members/waltzmn/Manuscripts501-1000.html#m629

 

[createdtoworship]

SEE HERE> http://www.skypoint.com/members/waltzmn/Manuscripts501-1000.html#m629

where is mss 61 in your link, I didn't see it.

besides can you honestly think bart ehrman is a legitimate source?

when he writes books like this...

God's Problem: How the Bible Fails to Answer Our Most Important Question – Why We Suffer. HarperCollins, USA. 2008.

 

[he-man]

where is mss 61 in your link, I didn't see it.
God's Problem: How the Bible Fails to Answer Our Most Important Question – Why We Suffer. HarperCollins, USA. 2008.

Sorry that Link is here> Codex Montfortianus - Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia
It was copied from a 10th century manuscript at Lincoln College, Oxford, that did not have the Comma. The Comma was inserted from the Latin

besides can you honestly think bart ehrman is a legitimate source?

That was also Scriveners opinion
F. H. A. Scrivener, A Plain Introduction to the Criticism of the New Testament (George Bell & Sons: London, 1894), vol. 1, p. 200.

 

[createdtoworship]

Sorry that Link is here> Codex Montfortianus - Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia
It was copied from a 10th century manuscript at Lincoln College, Oxford, that did not have the Comma. The Comma was inserted from the Latin

That was also Scriveners opinion
F. H. A. Scrivener, A Plain Introduction to the Criticism of the New Testament (George Bell & Sons: London, 1894), vol. 1, p. 200.

I don't see a quote for which you sourced Scriveners link?

wikipedia sources bart ehrman like you did, is this the only source for your theory that the manuscript was copied?

and here is another book for ehrmans errors

Misquoting Truth: A Guide to the Fallacies of Bart Ehrman's Misquoting Jesus: Timothy Paul Jones: 9780830834471: Christianbook.com

 

[he-man]

I don't see a quote for which you sourced Scriveners link?

wikipedia sources bart ehrman like you did, is this the only source for your theory that the manuscript was copied?

Then read the book!
A Plain Introduction to the Criticism of the New Testament

Idon't like Ehrman either but he happened to be correct on that one.

 

[createdtoworship]

Idon't like Ehrman either but he happened to be correct on that one.

prove it. Or it's just another one of barts schemes to make money. It has been said of Ehrman that he was a “fundamentalist scholar who peered so hard into the origins of Christianity that he lost his faith altogether.”
http://bible.org/article/gospel-according-bart

secondly, your other reference is inaccurate too,

it comes from this page and it is referring to foot note 1 not 5, which basically mentions that the manuscript is from the 15-16th century only.

http://textus-receptus.com/wiki/Minuscule_61


anyway back to the original debate:

another commentator converts over to the authenticity of 1 john 5:7-9:

Bengelius, -- the most pious, the most judicious, and the most laborious, of all the modern Commentators on the New Testament. For some time he stood in doubt of its authenticity, because it is wanting in many of the ancient copies. But his doubts were removed by three considerations: (1.) That though it is wanting in many copies, yet it is found in more; and those copies of the greatest authority: -- ( 2.) That it is cited by a whole gain of ancient writers, from the time of St. John to that of Constantine. This argument is conclusive: For they could not have cited it, had it not been in the sacred canon: -- (3.) That we can easily account for its being, after that time, wanting in many copies, when we remember that Constantine's successor was a zealous Arian, who used every means to promote his bad cause, to spread Arianism throughout the empire; in particular the erasing this text out of as many copies as fell into his hands. And he so far prevailed, that the age in which he lived is commonly styled, Seculum Aranium, -- "the Arian age;" there being then only one eminent man who opposed him at the peril of his life. So that it was a proverb, Athanasius contra mundum: "Athanasius against the world."

http://www.sovereignword.org/index....articles/17-1-john-57-and-these-three-are-one

 

[he-man]

prove it. Or it's just another one of barts schemes to make money.

Ditto: READ the BOOK and your BIBLE. You think to challenge the authority of someone proves anything?

Address the Scripture and not attack the credibility to make it look like you said something useful. That is a very weak approach.

SEE HERE> http://www.skypoint.com/members/waltzmn/Manuscripts501-1000.html#m629

 

[createdtoworship]

Ditto: READ the BOOK and your BIBLE. You think to challenge the authority of someone proves anything?

Address the Scripture and not attack the credibility to make it look like you said something useful. That is a very weak approach.

SEE HERE> http://www.skypoint.com/members/waltzmn/Manuscripts501-1000.html#m629

when ever the verse is in the Greek, liberal scholars would just say it was borrowed from the Latin. So it's circular reasoning, which is faulty argument. The point is that some theologians from john to Constantine had the verse because they quote it. So where did they get it? I suggest the great arian political leaders erased it. The other option is that it was erased by accident like several other passages in 1 john. Scribes would essentially be "juggling" many appearances of a word in a span of just a few lines. The frequency of the appearance of "πνευμα" from 5:6 to 5:7 could confuse a careless scribe. Due to the many repetitions of similar words in 1 John 5:6-8, it would not be unreasonable to suppose that a scribe omitted the Comma by accident. The same is done in 1 John 5:13, and 1 John 2:23b where words are omitted in early text because of similar reasons. see below link:

http://www.kjvtoday.com/home/the-father-the-word-and-the-holy-ghost-in-1-john-57

the assured results of higher criticism bring a contradicting Bible


Mark 10:7:

The KJV says, “cleave to his wife.”
The NASB of 1977 and 1995 omitted the phrase.
The ESV of 2001 put the phrase back into the text.


Luke 24:6:

The KJV says, “He is not here, but is risen:”
The RSV of 1971 omitted the phrase.
The NRSV of 1989 put the phrase back into the text at the end of the previous verse.


Luke 24:12:

The KJV says, “Then arose Peter, and ran unto the sepulchre; and stooping down, he beheld the linen clothes laid by themselves, and departed, wondering in himself at that which was come to pass.”
The RSV of 1971 omitted the phrase.
The NRSV of 1989 put the phrase back into the text.


Luke 24:36:

The KJV says, “And saith unto them, Peace be unto you.”
The NASB of 1977 and RSV of 1971 omitted the phrase.
The NASB of 1995 and the NRSV of 1989 put the phrase back into the text.


Luke 24:40:

The KJV says, “And when he had thus spoken, he shewed them his hands and his feet.”
The RSV of 1971 omitted the phrase.
The NRSV of 1989 put the phrase back into the text.


Luke 24:51:

The KJV says, “and carried up into heaven.”
The NASB of 1977 omitted the phrase.
The NASB of 1995 put the phrase back into the text.


Luke 24:52:

The KJV says, “worshipped him.”
The NASB of 1977 and the RSV of 1971 omitted the phrase.
The NASB of 1995 and the NRSV of 1989 put the phrase back into the text.


Romans 15:19:

The KJV says, “spirit of God.”
The NIV of 1984 omitted "of God".
The NIV of 2010 put the phrase back into the text.


Colossians 3:6:

The KJV says, “on the children of disobedience.”
The NASB of 1977 omitted the phrase.
The NASB of 1995 put the phrase back into the text.



1 Peter 5:2

The KJV says, “taking the oversight thereof.”
The RSV omitted the phrase.
The NRSV of 1989 put the phrase back into the text.

 

[LutheranMafia]

Because your are reading into that. Over and over Jude writes that the are dead, and destroyed. However else Jude describes them, it must include being dead and destroyed.

Nowhere does Jude say destroyed. Even after they are twice dead the still "wander in eternal nether gloom".

This whole section of quotes is pretty much just a misunderstanding that I can clear up right now. You don't HAVE to die twice to have total cessation of consciousness. You have that anytime you die. From the rest of scripture, we know that there will be a resurrection. Anyone who dies after the resurrection will also lose consciousness the second time.

How can there be a second death if consiousness ceases at the first death. If consciousness ceased at the first death there would be no need for a soul death, one would already be thoroughly dead an unconsciousness. The very existence of a second death proves that consciousness does not cease at the first death, otherwise the second death would have no meaning.

And where does Jude say this?

In verse 13, where they continue to wander in eternal nether gloom even after being twice dead.

Hello!

You're the one that started the snippy "hello?" business.

 

[Timothew]

Nowhere does Jude say destroyed. Even after they are twice dead the still "wander in eternal nether gloom".

How can there be a second death if consiousness ceases at the first death. If consciousness ceased at the first death there would be no need for a soul death, one would already be thoroughly dead an unconsciousness. The very existence of a second death proves that consciousness does not cease at the first death, otherwise the second death would have no meaning.

In verse 13, where they continue to wander in eternal nether gloom even after being twice dead.

You're the one that started the snippy "hello?" business.

Yes, I know. I didn't mean it to be snippy, I said it because you said, No one, not even Timothew, has responded to the Jude passages. And I did respond earlier.

You aren't really reading my posts, which is why you can post this:

How can there be a second death if consiousness ceases at the first death. If consciousness ceased at the first death there would be no need for a soul death, one would already be thoroughly dead an unconsciousness. The very existence of a second death proves that consciousness does not cease at the first death, otherwise the second death would have no meaning.

Don't forget that there is A RESURRECTION TO LIFE between the first and second deaths. So it goes like this:
1. First Life.
2. First Death
3. A Cease of Conscoiusness (this is what death is)
4. Resurrection to Life (a return to life and consciousness, this is what life is)
5. Second Death for those who receive the second death, eternal life for those who do not receive the second death.
6. The second death is a cease of consciousness, this is what death is.

Nowhere does Jude say destroyed.

verse 10, "these are the things that destroy them"
verse 11, "they have been destroyed"
veerse 7 "Sodom and Gemorrah...serve as an example" remember that Sodom and Gemorrah were destroyed.

 

[LutheranMafia]

Don't forget that there is A RESURRECTION TO LIFE between the first and second deaths. So it goes like this:
1. First Life.
2. First Death
3. A Cease of Conscoiusness (this is what death is)
4. Resurrection to Life (a return to life and consciousness, this is what life is)
5. Second Death for those who receive the second death, eternal life for those who do not receive the second death.
6. The second death is a cease of consciousness, this is what death is.

Where does wandering eternally in nether gloom fit in here?

verse 10, "these are the things that destroy them"

As to destroy, you got me here, he does speak of destruction but my argument all along has been that the body and the soul get destroyed yet the spirit continues on for eternity.

verse 11, "they have been destroyed"

"They went down alive into the realm of the dead" Numbers 16:33 Korah's rebellion was destroyed in body and soul and yet they went down "alive" into Sheol.

veerse 7 "Sodom and Gemorrah...serve as an example" remember that Sodom and Gemorrah were destroyed.

Just because these people were killed does not mean that their spirit was destroyed. Verse seven does not say destroyed, you insinuate that it is a fordrawn conclusion that they were utterly wiped away from existence, but that is not the case. Jude 1:13 makes it clear that part of their consciousness continues on for eternity.

You repeatedly refuse to address the subject of Jude 1:13, you wiggle and squirm to avoid it over and over again. Athough the first time you addressed it you hit the nail on the head. You said twice dead: body and soul, wanders for eternty in blackest darkness: spirit.

The spirit is indestructible, not even the second death destroys it. Mathew 10:28 clearly speaks of a soul death, but nowhere in the Bible does it speak of a spirit death.

 

[Mikecpking]

Where does wandering eternally in nether gloom fit in here?

As to destroy, you got me here, he does speak of destruction but my argument all along has been that the body and the soul get destroyed yet the spirit continues on for eternity.
"They went down alive into the realm of the dead" Numbers 16:33 Korah's rebellion was destroyed in body and soul and yet they went down "alive" into Sheol.


Just because these people were killed does not mean that their spirit was destroyed. Verse seven does not say destroyed, you insinuate that it is a fordrawn conclusion that they were utterly wiped away from existence, but that is not the case. Jude 1:13 makes it clear that part of their consciousness continues on for eternity.

You repeatedly refuse to address the subject of Jude 1:13, you wiggle and squirm to avoid it over and over again. Athough the first time you addressed it you hit the nail on the head. You said twice dead: body and soul, wanders for eternty in blackest darkness: spirit.

The spirit is indestructible, not even the second death destroys it. Mathew 10:28 clearly speaks of a soul death, but nowhere in the Bible does it speak of a spirit death.

As mentioned before, 'spirit' is the breath of life given by God (gen 2:7) and its not us. This definition of spirit is further defined in Ecclesiates 3:19-21 where spirit (ruach) is translated as 'breath'. 'It' goes back to God who gave it (ecclesiates 12:7 when we return to the dust (gen 3:19), not that we had a pre-existence!
The bible is clear that we sleep in the dust of the earth until the resurrection (dan 12:2, John 5:28-29) and in Psalm 88 describes the intermediate state as one of the rephaim (tranlated as 'the dead' in modern translations).
Being sent to sheol alive is the picture of the people literally being buried alive as sheol was synonomous with the grave.

Nowhere does the bible have the notion that 'soul' is outside a body, living or dead (corpse).

 

[createdtoworship]

Don't forget that there is A RESURRECTION TO LIFE between the first and second deaths. So it goes like this:
1. First Life.
2. First Death
3. A Cease of Conscoiusness (this is what death is)
4. Resurrection to Life (a return to life and consciousness, this is what life is)
5. Second Death for those who receive the second death, eternal life for those who do not receive the second death.
6. The second death is a cease of consciousness, this is what death is.

in your view there is no reason for a first death, because the second death follows. In my view the first death is for a wait period for the judgment, the second death comes after the judgement and one is sent alive into hell, where they are not destroyed (like the beast and the false prophet). However when one dies there is no reason to believe that they are not fast forwarded to the judgment instantaneously. (for the wicked and for the righteous) God can do anything, so there is not reason for the soul to sleep or in your view no reason for the first death because God could just judge man and condemn Him without dying the first time.

3. A Cease of Conscoiusness (this is what death is)

you need citations for this assumption.

 

[createdtoworship]

As mentioned before, 'spirit' is the breath of life given by God (gen 2:7) and its not us. This definition of spirit is further defined in Ecclesiates 3:19-21 where spirit (ruach) is translated as 'breath'. 'It' goes back to God who gave it (ecclesiates 12:7 when we return to the dust (gen 3:19), not that we had a pre-existence!
The bible is clear that we sleep in the dust of the earth until the resurrection (dan 12:2, John 5:28-29) and in Psalm 88 describes the intermediate state as one of the rephaim (tranlated as 'the dead' in modern translations).
Being sent to sheol alive is the picture of the people literally being buried alive as sheol was synonomous with the grave.

Nowhere does the bible have the notion that 'soul' is outside a body, living or dead (corpse).

“Let us swallow them up alive as the grave [Sheol]; and whole, as those that go down into the pit” (Proverbs 1.12 KJV bible).

“Hell [Sheol] from beneath is moved for thee to meet thee at thy coming: it stirreth up the dead for thee, even all the chief ones of the earth; it hath raised up from their thrones all the kings of the nations. All they shall speak and say unto thee, Art thou also become weak as we? art thou become like unto us?” (Isaiah 14.9-10 KJV bible).

Isaiah even describes the dead being "stirred up" and speaking out, implying that Sheol is a realm of many departed living souls/spirits.

 

[Mikecpking]

“Let us swallow them up alive as the grave [Sheol]; and whole, as those that go down into the pit” (Proverbs 1.12 KJV bible).

“Hell [Sheol] from beneath is moved for thee to meet thee at thy coming: it stirreth up the dead for thee, even all the chief ones of the earth; it hath raised up from their thrones all the kings of the nations. All they shall speak and say unto thee, Art thou also become weak as we? art thou become like unto us?” (Isaiah 14.9-10 KJV bible).

Sheol is indeed the realm of the dead until the resurrection, but rather than a hive of activity, the opposite is true. The next verse also talks about talking trees so Isaiah 14:11 so Isaiah was using metaphor that the dead would be happy and joyful at the death of the king entereing their midst.

The key verses that death is sleep are in Psalms 146:4, Ecclesiates 9:5-6 and Job 14:10-12.

Isaiah even describes the dead being "stirred up" and speaking out, implying that Sheol is a realm of many departed living souls/spirits.

Not everyone gets buried alive! We are dead souls when we get buried until we decompose then we are no longer 'souls' (nephesh) and ruach breath has already gone back to God so 'spirit' never makes it to sheol.

 

[createdtoworship]

Sheol is indeed the realm of the dead until the resurrection, but rather than a hive of activity, the opposite is true. The next verse also talks about talking trees so Isaiah 14:11 so Isaiah was using metaphor that the dead would be happy and joyful at the death of the king entereing their midst.

Not everyone gets buried alive! We are dead souls when we get buried until we decompose then we are no longer 'souls' (nephesh) and ruach breath has already gone back to God so 'spirit' never makes it to sheol.

Even if we did sleep during up until the first resurrection there is no reason to believe that we would sleep after the judgement. It would be like me pulling you out of prison to judge you, then putting you back in prison. Normally the judgment happens first you know?

 

[Mikecpking]

Even if we did sleep during up until the first resurrection there is no reason to believe that we would sleep after the judgement. It would be like me pulling you out of prison to judge you, then putting you back in prison. Normally the judgment happens first you know?

No one sleeps after judgment..its either the new Jerusalem or the lake of fire!
Its the in between stage that is in debate, but sleep sheol/hades is only the interim between physical death and the resurrection on the last day.

 

[createdtoworship]

No one sleeps after judgment..its either the new Jerusalem or the lake of fire!
Its the in between stage that is in debate, but sleep sheol/hades is only the interim between physical death and the resurrection on the last day.

The key verses that death is sleep are in Psalms 146:4, Ecclesiates 9:5-6 and Job 14:10-12.

ECCLESIASTES 9

Ecclesiastes is speaking in reference to the living, the dead are dead and there is no more memory of them. But in reference to the dead they are alive from the verses I already quoted from proverbs and others. The first three verses of Ecclesiastes say,

"The words of the Preacher, the son of David, king in Jerusalem. 2 “Vanity of vanities,” says the Preacher, “Vanity of vanities! All is vanity.” 3 What advantage does man have in all his work which he does under the sun?"

Notice that he is writing about things from a human perspective, from that which is "under the sun."


PSALM 146

If one's thoughts "perish" then that implies that there is an unconscious state. It is of some note, however, that the word for "perish" is not the same as words found elsewhere: karath, a word which explicitly indicates punishment or destruction (Gen. 41:36, "And that food shall be for store to the land against the seven years of famine, which shall be in the land of Egypt; that the land perish not through the famine.") or naphal (Ex. 19:21, "And the LORD said unto Moses, Go down, charge the people, lest they break through unto the LORD to gaze, and many of them perish.").

The word used, 'abad, has a primary meaning of wandering away or losing one's self. Here is how it is used elsewhere:

Ex. 10:7 And Pharaoh's servants said unto him, How long shall this man be a snare unto us? let the men go, that they may serve the LORD their God: knowest thou not yet that Egypt is destroyed?

Deut. 4:26 I call heaven and earth to witness against you this day, that ye shall soon utterly perish from off the land whereunto ye go over Jordan to possess it; ye shall not prolong your days upon it, but shall utterly be destroyed.

Consider this in light of the point that Israel's ultimate punishment was exile.

Deut. 26:5 And thou shalt speak and say before the LORD thy God, A Syrian ready to perish was my father, and he went down into Egypt, and sojourned there with a few, and became there a nation, great, mighty, and populous.

1 Sam. 9:20 And as for thine asses that were lost three days ago, set not thy mind on them; for they are found. And on whom is all the desire of Israel? Is it not on thee, and on all thy father's house?

The sense of this word suggests that the state of death is not exactly unconscious, but one in which your mind wanders and focus is extremely difficult (which may make sense if your brain is missing.). In essence, if we understand 'abad correctly, those in Sheol do not lose consciousness, but rather, concentration. And if that is so, little wonder "sleeping" is the main activity.



JOB 14

Job simply speaks of physical life departing. No mention of the soul/spirit.

sheol can mean many things, the underworld or the state of the dead. You mention verses the speak of the latter.

The Dead are Conscious After Death

Ezek. 32:31 The strong among the mighty shall speak to him out of the midst of hell with them that help him: they are gone down, they lie uncircumcised, slain by the sword.

These verses speak of the dead as being roused to greet a newcomer, and speaking from Sheol.

The wicked descend alive into Sheol
Num. 16:30, "But if the Lord brings about an entirely new thing and the ground opens its mouth and swallows them up with all that is theirs, and they descend alive into Sheol, then you will understand that these men have spurned the Lord . . . 33 So they and all that belonged to them went down alive to Sheol; and the earth closed over them, and they perished from the midst of the assembly."

Cast to outer darkness with weeping and gnashing of teeth
Matt. 8:12, "but the sons of the kingdom shall be cast out into the outer darkness; in that place there shall be weeping and gnashing of teeth.”

Those cast into the fire suffer consciously
Matt. 13:41-42, "The Son of Man will send forth His angels, and they will gather out of His kingdom all stumbling blocks, and those who commit lawlessness, 42 and will cast them into the furnace of fire; in that place there shall be weeping and gnashing of teeth.” See also Matt. 13:50.

Cast into a tormenting fire
Rev. 14:9-11, "And another angel, a third one, followed them, saying with a loud voice, "If anyone worships the beast and his image, and receives a mark on his forehead or upon his hand, 10 he also will drink of the wine of the wrath of God, which is mixed in full strength in the cup of His anger; and he will be tormented with fire and brimstone in the presence of the holy angels and in the presence of the Lamb. 11 "And the smoke of their torment goes up forever and ever; and they have no rest day and night, those who worship the beast and his image, and whoever receives the mark of his name."” See also, Rev. 21:8.

Thrown into the lake of Fire
"And the devil who deceived them was thrown into the lake of fire and brimstone, where the beast and the false prophet are also; and they will be tormented day and night forever and ever."

Hell is a place of eternal fire and punishment

Unquenchable Fire
Matt. 3:12 "And His winnowing fork is in His hand, and He will thoroughly clear His threshing floor; and He will gather His wheat into the barn, but He will burn up the chaff with unquenchable fire."

Fiery Hell
Matt. 5:22, "whoever shall say, 'You fool,' shall be guilty enough to go into the fiery hell." See also, Matt. 5:29,30.

Fiery Hell
Matt. 18:8-9, "And if your hand or your foot causes you to stumble, cut it off and throw it from you; it is better for you to enter life crippled or lame, than having two hands or two feet, to be cast into the eternal fire. 9 "And if your eye causes you to stumble, pluck it out, and throw it from you. It is better for you to enter life with one eye, than having two eyes, to be cast into the fiery hell."

Eternal Fire
Matt. 25:41, "Then He will also say to those on His left, 'Depart from Me, accursed ones, into the eternal fire which has been prepared for the devil and his angels.

Eternal Punishment
Matt. 25:46, "And these will go away into eternal punishment, but the righteous into eternal life."

The word "eternal" in both places is "aionios" which means 1) without beginning and end, that which always has been and always will be; 2) without beginning; 3) without end, never to cease, everlasting. The word "punishment" is the word "kolasis" and it means "to punish, with the implication of resulting severe suffering - 'to punish, punishment.'"5

Eternal Fire
Jude 7, "Just as Sodom and Gomorrah and the cities around them, since they in the same way as these indulged in gross immorality and went after strange flesh, are exhibited as an example, in undergoing the punishment of eternal fire."

Thrown into the lake of Fire
"And the devil who deceived them was thrown into the lake of fire and brimstone, where the beast and the false prophet are also; and they will be tormented day and night forever and ever."

Lake of Fire
Rev. 20:15, "And if anyone's name was not found written in the book of life, he was thrown into the lake of fire."
Luke 16:19-31, Lazarus and the Rich Man

In Luke 16:19-31 is the story of Lazarus and the rich man. Basically, Lazarus is a poor man who suffers during life. The rich man is, of course, rich. They both die. The rich man goes to Hades. Lazarus goes to Abraham's bosom, another term for paradise. In Hades, the rich man lifts up his eyes and sees Lazarus far off. He cries out to Abraham and asks for mercy because he is in agony in flame. Abraham says no. Then the rich man asks if someone from the dead were to rise and go tell his brothers not to come to this terrible place. Abraham teaches him that that will not be done either.

Some say that this is a parable. However, if it is, it is unique because no other parable actually names a person. It isn't a story. It is history. It really happened. But many who believe in no consciousness after death will say it is still a parable. The question is then, if it is a parable what is it teaching? If hell fire is false and if self-awareness after death is also false, then Jesus is using false doctrines to teach a truth. Parables illustrate truth. If it is a parable, what does the consciousness after death symbolize? Also, what does the agony in flame symbolize? Are they not real? Of course they are.
Conclusion

Hell is a real place. It is not mere unconsciousness. It is not temporal. It is eternal torment. Perhaps that is why Jesus spoke more of hell than heaven and spent so much time warning people not to go there. After all, if people just stopped existing, why warn them? If it was temporal, they'd get out in a while. But if it were eternal and conscious, then the warning is strong.

Jesus said, "And if your right eye makes you stumble, tear it out, and throw it from you; for it is better for you that one of the parts of your body perish, than for your whole body to be thrown into hell. 30 "And if your right hand makes you stumble, cut it off, and throw it from you; for it is better for you that one of the parts of your body perish, than for your whole body to go into hell," (Matt. 5:29-30).

from CARM.org