• Starting today August 7th, 2024, in order to post in the Married Couples, Courting Couples, or Singles forums, you will not be allowed to post if you have your Marital status designated as private. Announcements will be made in the respective forums as well but please note that if yours is currently listed as Private, you will need to submit a ticket in the Support Area to have yours changed.

Knowing the "heart" (and mind maybe) of God...?

SavedByGrace3

Jesus is Lord of ALL! (Not asking permission)
Site Supporter
Jun 6, 2002
20,690
4,429
Midlands
Visit site
✟763,737.00
Country
United States
Gender
Male
Faith
Christian
Marital Status
Married
Politics
US-Others
Is YHWH or Jehovah or God in the OT that interacted with us, that we (some of us) saw and/or heard, the Father God, or not...?

God Bless!
Sorry, without a context for your question, I do not know what you are asking. Why are you asking me this? I am not sure what it has to do with the OP.
 
Upvote 0

Neogaia777

Old Soul
Site Supporter
Oct 10, 2011
24,717
5,558
46
Oregon
✟1,104,086.00
Country
United States
Gender
Male
Faith
Non-Denom
Marital Status
Celibate
Sorry, without a context for your question, I do not know what you are asking. Why are you asking me this? I am not sure what it has to do with the OP.
It's part of knowing the heart of God...

And "context"...? It's a pretty simple question...? But, I'll try again (and try to make it even simpler)...?

Is YHWH/Jehovah God, is he who you atypically think is the Father God, or not...?

God Bless!
 
Upvote 0

SavedByGrace3

Jesus is Lord of ALL! (Not asking permission)
Site Supporter
Jun 6, 2002
20,690
4,429
Midlands
Visit site
✟763,737.00
Country
United States
Gender
Male
Faith
Christian
Marital Status
Married
Politics
US-Others
It's part of knowing the heart of God...

And "context"...? It's a pretty simple question...? But, I'll try again (and try to make it even simpler)...?

Is YHWH/Jehovah God, is he who you atypically think is the Father God, or not...?

God Bless!
It is only easy when you frame the question in the context your definitions. Given your definitions might not be correct, it may be impossible for people to answer.
Here is a question:
How is it possible to win an NFL game 1 to 0? Very simple question. Can you answer this? Only a person with different scoring rules where it is possible to score 1 point can answer this question. So definitions and context do matter.

So lets discuss the context of your question. Are we suggesting that God in the OT is the Father of the NT?
Depends if you hold that Son had issued forth from the God in the OT. Simple in that to be a father one has to have at least 1 child. And to be a child, one has to have exactly 1 father.
I do hold this to be true. I hold that the Son had issued forth from the God therefore God became a Father prior to Adam. This happened before creation as the initial act of creation. The Son issuing forth from the Father was the first act of creation.
The Son came out of the Father... much like a child coming out of a mother. Birth.
We understand that a child is in and has always been in the "bowels" of the parent. God was not a Father until the Son came forth out of the Father. But the Son was always in there, just as you and I were in the bowels of Adam all those thousands of years ago. I am a gardener. We have processes where we take cuttings from a plant and use that cutting to bring forth new plants. "New" only in the context that they are physically separate from the original. But genetically they are identical. The Son is and was genetically identical from the Father. In the process of cellular division, it is impossible to tell the difference between the child cell and the parent cell. We use these terms because that is how we understand reproduction.. but biologically... you cannot tell which cell is the first and which cell is the second. They are identical. There is no parent cell and child cell. They are identical. You can only begin to differentiate the two as they process and assume different roles and perform differing actions.
There is evidence in the OT language that the Son issued forth from the "womb" of the Father. They were there together all along... but the Father-Son meaning did not coming into being until that moment when the Son came forth out of the Father.
All of this is opened up clearly and concisely with hundreds of scriptures and proofs in the book "A Revelation of Who Jesus Is."
 
Upvote 0

Neogaia777

Old Soul
Site Supporter
Oct 10, 2011
24,717
5,558
46
Oregon
✟1,104,086.00
Country
United States
Gender
Male
Faith
Non-Denom
Marital Status
Celibate
It is only easy when you frame the question in the context your definitions. Given your definitions might not be correct, it may be impossible for people to answer.
Here is a question:
How is it possible to win an NFL game 1 to 0? Very simple question. Can you answer this? Only a person with different scoring rules where it is possible to score 1 point can answer this question. So definitions and context do matter.

So lets discuss the context of your question. Are we suggesting that God in the OT is the Father of the NT?
Depends if you hold that Son had issued forth from the God in the OT. Simple in that to be a father one has to have at least 1 child. And to be a child, one has to have exactly 1 father.
I do hold this to be true. I hold that the Son had issued forth from the God therefore God became a Father prior to Adam. This happened before creation as the initial act of creation. The Son issuing forth from the Father was the first act of creation.
The Son came out of the Father... much like a child coming out of a mother. Birth.
We understand that a child is in and has always been in the "bowels" of the parent. God was not a Father until the Son came forth out of the Father. But the Son was always in there, just as you and I were in the bowels of Adam all those thousands of years ago. I am a gardener. We have processes where we take cuttings from a plant and use that cutting to bring forth new plants. "New" only in the context that they are physically separate from the original. But genetically they are identical. The Son is and was genetically identical from the Father. In the process of cellular division, it is impossible to tell the difference between the child cell and the parent cell. We use these terms because that is how we understand reproduction.. but biologically... you cannot tell which cell is the first and which cell is the second. They are identical. There is no parent cell and child cell. They are identical. You can only begin to differentiate the two as they process and assume different roles and perform differing actions.
There is evidence in the OT language that the Son issued forth from the "womb" of the Father. They were there together all along... but the Father-Son meaning did not coming into being until that moment when the Son came forth out of the Father.
All of this is opened up clearly and concisely with hundreds of scriptures and proofs in the book "A Revelation of Who Jesus Is."
Who was at the "helm" (so to speak) of the Godhead in the OT...?

Was not all of Creation created through and by Christ Jesus with the Father God's authority and power, or not...? (Colossians 1:15-17)

And were made "for him", or not...?

God Bless!
 
Upvote 0

Neogaia777

Old Soul
Site Supporter
Oct 10, 2011
24,717
5,558
46
Oregon
✟1,104,086.00
Country
United States
Gender
Male
Faith
Non-Denom
Marital Status
Celibate
It is only easy when you frame the question in the context your definitions. Given your definitions might not be correct, it may be impossible for people to answer.
Here is a question:
How is it possible to win an NFL game 1 to 0? Very simple question. Can you answer this? Only a person with different scoring rules where it is possible to score 1 point can answer this question. So definitions and context do matter.

So lets discuss the context of your question. Are we suggesting that God in the OT is the Father of the NT?
Depends if you hold that Son had issued forth from the God in the OT. Simple in that to be a father one has to have at least 1 child. And to be a child, one has to have exactly 1 father.
I do hold this to be true. I hold that the Son had issued forth from the God therefore God became a Father prior to Adam. This happened before creation as the initial act of creation. The Son issuing forth from the Father was the first act of creation.
The Son came out of the Father... much like a child coming out of a mother. Birth.
We understand that a child is in and has always been in the "bowels" of the parent. God was not a Father until the Son came forth out of the Father. But the Son was always in there, just as you and I were in the bowels of Adam all those thousands of years ago. I am a gardener. We have processes where we take cuttings from a plant and use that cutting to bring forth new plants. "New" only in the context that they are physically separate from the original. But genetically they are identical. The Son is and was genetically identical from the Father. In the process of cellular division, it is impossible to tell the difference between the child cell and the parent cell. We use these terms because that is how we understand reproduction.. but biologically... you cannot tell which cell is the first and which cell is the second. They are identical. There is no parent cell and child cell. They are identical. You can only begin to differentiate the two as they process and assume different roles and perform differing actions.
There is evidence in the OT language that the Son issued forth from the "womb" of the Father. They were there together all along... but the Father-Son meaning did not coming into being until that moment when the Son came forth out of the Father.
All of this is opened up clearly and concisely with hundreds of scriptures and proofs in the book "A Revelation of Who Jesus Is."
You guys really are making this way and much more complicated than it really needs to be you know...? (talk about muddying up the waters)... Sheesh...

It's not rocket science, and is certainly much easier to understand than rocket science...

God Bless!
 
Upvote 0

Stormy

Senior Contributor
Jun 16, 2002
9,441
868
St. Louis, Mo
Visit site
✟59,554.00
Faith
Christian
Politics
US-Others
IMO we can never know all that is God. It is beyond the realm of our understanding.

So when you listen to all the Biblical scholars. Imagine them as small children. Just as a child does not know the complexity of his father's thoughts and world, we know little of God. But the child knows that he is to be good and his father loves him and will protect him.... So will our Father.

People make easy difficult, cause they imagine themselves of high intelligence. I believe we know but a smudge of the possibility.
 
Upvote 0

SavedByGrace3

Jesus is Lord of ALL! (Not asking permission)
Site Supporter
Jun 6, 2002
20,690
4,429
Midlands
Visit site
✟763,737.00
Country
United States
Gender
Male
Faith
Christian
Marital Status
Married
Politics
US-Others
Why not...? I mean this is, and should be Bible 101...

God Bless!
Should.. but is not.
Whole new words and such.
The words "control," "sovereignty," and "trinity" are not even in the Bible. But they are pretty much the prime driving factors of much of modern theology. Go figure.
 
Upvote 0

Neogaia777

Old Soul
Site Supporter
Oct 10, 2011
24,717
5,558
46
Oregon
✟1,104,086.00
Country
United States
Gender
Male
Faith
Non-Denom
Marital Status
Celibate
Is God good and evil?

The terms "good and evil", do not apply to God, the Father, since he is above and "beyond" those terms, (like I previously stated) He (God the Father) just "is what he is" or he is the great "I am that (or what) I am"...

Christ/YHWH, (or God in and of the OT), is the "I will (prove to) be, what I will (prove to) be", or is the "I will become, what I will (to) become" "part" of the great "I am"... Which is (to become) just like, (in his due time) (after he came to us as man, and died on the cross and then, after that) just like (and/but only then), then completely equal to God the Father himself, but only "after" that point (the cross) and not before it, (as God/YHWH in the OT) in the end...

They are equal now, but were not always...

And, again the terms "good" and/or "evil" just "do not apply" to God the Father for he is "above and beyond" those terms... And he just "Is what he is" and that is, the great "I AM"...

God Bless!
 
Upvote 0

Neogaia777

Old Soul
Site Supporter
Oct 10, 2011
24,717
5,558
46
Oregon
✟1,104,086.00
Country
United States
Gender
Male
Faith
Non-Denom
Marital Status
Celibate
Should.. but is not.
Whole new words and such.
The words "control," "sovereignty," and "trinity" are not even in the Bible. But they are pretty much the prime driving factors of much of modern theology. Go figure.
Just please tell me your understanding at least "some" of what I am saying please...?

Are you...?

God Bless!
 
Upvote 0

Job3315

Well-Known Member
Apr 21, 2018
885
729
United States
✟99,140.00
Country
United States
Gender
Female
Faith
Christian
Marital Status
Single
Knowing the "heart" (and mind maybe) of God...?

Is this possible...? And if so, what is it (God's heart) like...? According to all the information we have on him (God) or this (his heart), in all the scriptures...?

This came up because of these posts in this thread:

Was or is YHWH, or the God that interacted with men in the OT 100% completely omniscient...?

Was or is YHWH, or the God that interacted with men in the OT 100% completely omniscient...?

What do you think...?

Comments...?

God Bless!

The Bible states that we have the mind of Christ and that Christ only did what He saw the Father do. So, yes, we can know the mind and the heart of God as we get close to the Trinity.
 
Upvote 0

SavedByGrace3

Jesus is Lord of ALL! (Not asking permission)
Site Supporter
Jun 6, 2002
20,690
4,429
Midlands
Visit site
✟763,737.00
Country
United States
Gender
Male
Faith
Christian
Marital Status
Married
Politics
US-Others
Just please tell me your understanding at least "some" of what I am saying please...?

Are you...?

God Bless!
Sure... As you said Neo, it is not rocket science. Lots of differences tho.
For instance the suggestion that knowledge about God is somehow beyond our ability to understand. I submit that knowledge about God is just as logical and easy to understand as any other knowledge. Just because the information is about God does not throw it off into some abstract realm or into the incomprehensible. Jesus came to show us the Father... or at least everything we need to know about Him. I think He was successful. Very simple terms, logic, and parables designed to be easy to understand.
I find that those who use the phrase "God is beyond our ability to understand" usually use it to explain away some error or aberration in their logic about God. Granted the sheer volume if information is impossible for us to absorb. But those elements He has opened to us are perfectly logical and well within our ability to both comprehend and understand. So when I ask questions about people's concepts of the Godhead the conversation usually heads down the road toward that statement: "God is too big for us to understand." Essentially a denial of Jesus' assertion that He in fact did present to us a perfect image of the Father.
I guess it is just that when people launch down this avenues of discussion, we expect some trickery or some form of logic that is a trap. So we are wary to proceed.
 
Upvote 0

Grip Docility

Well-Known Member
Nov 27, 2017
7,019
2,785
North America
✟19,306.00
Country
United States
Gender
Male
Faith
Eastern Orthodox
Marital Status
Married
Politics
US-Constitution
Knowing the "heart" (and mind maybe) of God...?

Is this possible...? And if so, what is it (God's heart) like...? According to all the information we have on him (God) or this (his heart), in all the scriptures...?

This came up because of these posts in this thread:

Was or is YHWH, or the God that interacted with men in the OT 100% completely omniscient...?

Was or is YHWH, or the God that interacted with men in the OT 100% completely omniscient...?

What do you think...?

Comments...?

God Bless!

Omniscience... ?

In the NT Jesus is fully God and not fully omniscient. He states a time only the Father knows.

We know the Father has the ability to see all possibilities in an instant... however... at that point in scripture... The Son did not have full omniscience.

This almost broaches onto Open Theism turf... but it doesn’t... because it retains that the Father is omniscient... and suggests that The Father, Son And Holy Spirit can work together in a way that preserves the Father’s Omnicience and the Son’s ability to relate to beings bound to time in an immediately sincere fashion that unfolds for Him as it unfolds for us.

Without getting into detail after detail... I would simply suggest the Holy Spirit as the connecting force between the Father and Son that allows this complexity.

That’s just me rattling on... but that’s my personal thoughts on the matter.

To be direct... scripture makes this very possible and this spins predestination theology and open Theism off the tracks...

But... it all comes down to 1 Corinthians 13 anyhow, so... it is what it is and we just peer into the looking glass dimly... for now.. :)
 
Upvote 0

Man on Fire

Well-Known Member
Jan 6, 2016
436
124
41
Durham, NC
✟19,338.00
Gender
Male
Faith
Christian
Marital Status
Single
Your Body is a Temple. Jesus lives inside of you. Part of growing in Faith is working to have a walk with God.

  • Trust in the LORD with all your heart and lean not on your own understanding; (Proverbs 3:5)

Do you know? I don't know. God knows. Someone that God is talking to may end up stripped. He is meek before God. He doesn't know. God knows. He may be like Socrates.


  • Then he said to me, "Son of man, eat this scroll I am giving you and fill your stomach with it." So I ate it, and it tasted as sweet as honey in my mouth. (Ezekiel 3:3)

The Word is in him. Being able to talk to God, God may give him a word or a verse, and he quickly can look it up on the internet.

God is omniscient. Man is not. Man cannot be God. Someone talking to God, or with a close relationship, may only be able to focus on one thing at a time in a way. He thinks about God and God related things most often, and is aware of God constantly.
 
Upvote 0

Colter

Member
Nov 9, 2004
8,711
1,407
61
✟100,301.00
Gender
Male
Faith
Other Religion
Marital Status
Married
God is good, we can know him by surrendering to him, by doing his will as was central to the original gospel of Jesus. God has a moral nature which is innate to the personality of his created beings.

Judaism evolved from the covenant with Abraham. The presentation of God gets better over time. Its not God that changed, it's mans understanding of God that improves. The scriptures were written by holy men, they reflect the limitations and bias of the culture that created them at least as they are preserved in the Bible books.
 
Upvote 0