Hi Philovoid
Thank you for your reply our Lord did not preach to the well educated he preached to the ordenary man in the street who most probably could not read or write but he expected them to understand his parables.
Jesus was sent to preached to the Jewish people. Matthew 15:24
These were people who were educated in the law of God from infancy. Deuteronomy 6:4-9
They could read and write, but many of them were not educated in the Rabbinic teachings. Acts 4:13
The reason we have over 600 denominations is because men have changed the words of scripture we need to stick to the words we have in the KJV I believe this is how God want his word to be.
Love and Peace
Dave
What do you mean by "changed the words of scripture"?
Are you aware that the inspired scriptures are centuries older than the KJV, and the KJV contains additions from later copyist?
Are you aware that the KJV has been revised multiple times, and in the New King James Version (NKJV), some of those additions are not found?
For example. 1 John 5:6, 7
KJV
6 This is he that came by water and blood, even Jesus Christ; not by water only, but by water and blood. And it is the Spirit that beareth witness, because the Spirit is truth.
7 For there are three that bear record in heaven, the Father, the Word, and the Holy Ghost: and these three are one.
8 And there are three that bear witness in earth, the Spirit, and the water, and the blood: and these three agree in one.
NKJV
6 This is the one who came by water and blood—Jesus Christ. He did not come by water only, but by water and blood. And it is the Spirit who testifies, because the Spirit is the truth.
7 For there are three that testify:
8 the Spirit, the water and the blood; and the three are in agreement.
Why do you believe persons should use the KJV translation?