Oldmantook
Well-Known Member
May I suggest you study soteriological doctrine. Are you aware what election entails? Election as defined by Reformed theology defines that those who are of the elect are believers who are chosen by the Father and given to the Son. It is entirely the Father's will who he chooses/elects and who he does not choose/elects. According to Reformed theology, he chooses to save some and bypasses others. Jn 17:6,9,11,12 reference Judas and the other disciples as being given to Jesus by the Father. Elect/election in Scripture never references unbelievers.Not really. The scripture doesn't mean that Judas was elected and no where is it mentioned. Jesus simply stated that those His Father gave to Him, He kept and lost none.
The Word 'gave' is didomi in Greek which means to give one to someone to follow him as a leader/or simply permit. This doesn't mean Judas was elected as you put it.
In John 13, we see two parallels; Peter vs Judas. When our Lord decides to wash His disciples feet, Peter desires that to have his hands, head washed too. Jesus responds "you are clean through the Word I have already spoken" implying that Peter was clean at heart(salvation) and only needed to have his feet washed. Feet denote walking in this salvation.
However, in vs 10;
Jesus said to him(Peter), “He who is bathed needs only to wash his feet, but is completely clean; and you are clean, but not all of you.” For He knew who would betray Him; therefore He said, “You are not all clean.”
John 13:10-11
Judas was not clean(Katharos in Greek which means pure, innocent, guiltless, blameless). He was unclean at heart.
Judas was not chosen of the LORD for good (vs 18) yet scripture in Ephesians 2:8-10 shows that those are saved by grace through faith are His workmanship in ordained for good works chosen beforehand that they should walk in them.
So if Judas wasn't chosen for good works, was he among the elect?NO
Upvote
0