I asked for a fish, and I received a stick. . .to which I plugged my ears and covered my eyes when told it was really a fish. . .end of story until a real fish is presented as I requested, which leaves me to conclude you do not really have one. . .which conclusion is fine with me.
No, the Father "winked" at the ignorance of idolatry and did not judge them for it in the past, but now he commands all people everywhere to repent because he has set a day when he will judge the world with justice (giving everyone their due, what they have earned). (Acts 17:30-31)
The Father judges no one but has committed all judgement to the Son.
The Torah was brought into existence at Sinai to show
1) the meaning of sin (Romans 3:20),
2) its remedy in substitutionary atonement of the animal sacrifices and ceremonial cleansings
(Leviticus 1-16),
Only according to the old man way of interpretation according to the Pharisees. Messiah teaches otherwise in the Gospel accounts and his Testimony has the support of the testimony of even king David in the Psalms and much more testimony in the Prophets. Your doctrine concerning such things is proven to be in error by the Torah itself, and the Prophets, and the Writings, and the Messiah, and Paul.
3) the impossibility of righteousness by law-keeping (Romans 3:20),
Incorrect assumption.
Romans 3:20 ASV
20 because by
the works of the law shall no
flesh be justified in his sight; for through the law cometh the knowledge of sin.
There is a reason Paul uses the idiom "the works of the law" here and a reason why he says "no flesh". Learn the meaning and why he says what he says: for it isn't what you assume and imagine. The flesh profits nothing: the Testimony of the Messiah is Spirit and Life.
4) thereby leading to Christ for all righteousness (justification) by faith (Galatians 3:24),
5) rendering us no longer under the supervision of the law (Galatians 3:25; Romans 7:3-4),
Incorrect assumptions already proven to be incorrect by the scripture as detailed in the links you refuse to look at. Sorry for your luck.
6) but under the supervision of our own hearts on which the Holy Spirit has written the law. ..
"and whatever other commandment there may be," and which law is fulfilled by loving (Romans 13:8-10).
If transgression of one commandment makes one guilty of the whole, and you imagine that Paul has replaced all the commandments with "love", and then you do not love: are you not therefore guilty of transgressing the whole?
Is it loving to refuse to look at scripture posted by another poster with whom you disagree theologically? even though the first three links were to a previous conversation with you?
Is it loving to label SDA's as Judaizers as you did on the previous page?
Yes, it is being stood on its head for the sake of Judaizing.
"Love fulfills the commandments. . .and whatever other commandment there may be" (Romans 13:8-10) becomes "love does the commandments," instead of "loving is the fulfillment of the commandments."
You even qutoed the passage about love while labeling someone a Judaizer. And is that even a true accusation? From what I have seen here in this board most SDA's have a strong focus on the Ten Commandments in discussions such as this, with an emphasis on the Shabbat, (or Sabbath). How does that make SDA's Judaizers when we know that the Torah was given through Mosheh to
all Yisrael?
The law prevented no spiritual death, we are born in spiritual death, and have to be born again into eternal life (John 3:3-7) to even see the kingdom of God.
The scripture strictly and forbids your understanding. Despite what people like to believe, proverbs, parables, allegories, idioms, and sayings contain doctrine: whether it is a doctrine being taught or whether it is a doctrine being condemned. Therefore if one does not understand the proverb, parable, etc., then the same is blind to the doctrine that is being expounded or forbidden. And in this case it is a doctrine forbidden and refuted in not only one but two places in the Prophets, and one of those places specifically refers to the renewed covenant.
The proverb is preempted and refuted in the Torah.
Deuteronomy 24:16 KJV
16 The fathers shall not be put to death for the children, neither shall the children be put to death for the fathers: every man shall be put to death for his own sin.
And here we find the proverb which came about later through an incorrect understanding of the Torah:
Ezekiel 18:1-4 KJV
1 The word of the LORD came unto me again, saying,
2 What mean ye, that ye use this proverb concerning the land of Israel, saying,
The fathers have eaten sour grapes,
and the children's teeth are set on edge?
3
As I live,
saith the Lord GOD,
ye shall not have occasion any more to use this proverb in Israel.
4
Behold,
all souls are mine;
as the soul of the father,
so also the soul of the son is mine:
the soul that sinneth,
it shall die.
Please be sure to review the entire context of the passage. And here below we find the same doctrine forbidden yet again in the specific context of the renewed covenant:
Jeremiah 31:29-31 KJV
29
In those days they shall say no more,
The fathers have eaten a sour grape,
and the children's teeth are set on edge.
30
But every one shall die for his own iniquity:
every man that eateth the sour grape,
his teeth shall be set on edge.
31 Behold, the days come, saith the LORD, that I will make a new covenant with the house of Israel, and with the house of Judah:
Every one shall die for his own iniquity, and you therefore do not understand the Testimony of the Messiah in the Gospel accounts: for unless you utterly deny yourself, and take up your own stake, and follow him, you cannot even be his disciple, (Luke 14:26, Luke 14:27, Luke 14:33), and therefore even the Prophets quoted herein are not speaking of physical death.
Moreover, regarding your comment about being born from above, again, see the links provided: one does not receive the promise until the same has done the will of Elohim, and the time appointed of the Father when a babe or child becomes a tried, true, tested son, as already proven with the plain statements of both Paul and the author of Hebrews which you have refused to look at. Sorry for your luck.
Contraire. . .not only is it not the only one, it is the wrong one.
He says it because it is the only time when man died without being guilty of sinning against covenantal law with its death penalty and, thereby, raising the question, "Then why did they die?"
His answer being that man was made guilty by the imputed guilt of the first Adam,
just as by faith he is made righteous by the imputed righteousness of the second Adam.
Ah, c'mon . . .is that really what the NT teaches?
Is that really right handling of the word of God, or is it distortion of the word of God (2 Peter 3:16)?
After stating that "the law was put in charge to lead us to Christ that we might be justified by faith,"
the very next verse states: now that faith has come, the law is no longer our paidagogos. (Galatians 3:24-25)
I need an explanation of why you present just the opposite of what the NT teaches.
You're gonna' have to do better than that if you want to be taken seriously.
All addressed in the links you refuse to look at.