nolidad said:
And again you are worng--it is not the traditonal beleifs but the text itself(the grammar) that causes them to state unequivocally the flood was global in its extent.
Lets look at what they said.
K&D said:
The statement, indeed, that it rose 15 cubits above the mountains, is probably founded upon the fact, that the ark drew 15 feet of water, and that when the waters subsided, it rested upon the top of Ararat, from which the conclusion would very naturally be drawn as to the greatest height attained...
K&D said:
A flood which rose 15 cubits above the top of Ararat could not remain partial, if it only continued a few days, to say nothing of the fact that the water was rising for 40 days, and remained at the highest elevation for 150 days. To speak of such a flood as partial is absurd, even if it broke out at only one spot, it would spread over the earth from one end to the other, and reach everywhere to the same elevation.
It is not the grammar that caused them to state unequivocally the flood was global, it is the simple physics that a flood 15 cubits over mount Ararat would also have flowed over the rest of the world.
The physics was sound, the premise was not. The bible does not say the ark came to rest on the top of mount Ararat.
Ararat was probably added in by Moses (the editor of most of genesis) though that is not absdolute -but probable.
It doesn't matter if it was added by Moses of not. Our Mount Ararat has only been called that since the Middle Ages. In Moses time the hills of Ararat meant the hill country in the kingdom of Urartu.
Yes K&D has some difficulties with height (and as creation science was not yet a vbalid scientific thought in their days) had to come up with some statement and they qualified it with an even if (and no it does not mean although as you desire- the context absolutely shows it to be a conditonal if).
Technically, creation science is still not valid science, but never mind.
And they di dnot have difficulty with Deut 2:25 being non global cause the context shows it to be area specific!! See it si aqmazing what you can decipher when you keep context and let Hebrew experts help guide you!!
Sure the context shows Deut 2:25 is area specific, that shows us 'under the whole heaven' can mean a local region. It is bad exegesis to say it is only means local if the context says so.
and by the way K&D, Eddersheim, and Fruchtenbaum are not infallible, but the 2 latter are still considered expert and their grammar exegetes trustworthy. Fruchtenbaum is a modern living scholar of well qualified stature! You have yet to even bring forth any linguists experts to butress your opinions as to the meanings of the passages you reject.
I thought you considered Delitzsch one of the most skilled hebrew linguists of the modern era?
But the exegesis is actually quite simple. It does not require a deep understanding of Hebrew or the permission of scholars to see that the simplest and commonest meaning of
erets in the context is land, and look up other references 'to under the whole heaven' to see that it does not always imply the globe.
You need to come up with actual linguistic and grammatical arguments rather than just say 'this expert says so'. If I had followed that kind of advice and trusted 'the experts who have studied those ancient languages', I would still be in the Catholic Church. I like to see what the bible says myself.
Well ancient languages do not change (seeing they are ancient) and there have never been any reputable scholarship I have seen invoked on several differing threads o this subject overthrow there simple but accurate exegesis.
Ancient languages don't change, but scholars do learn more about them as we get access to many more ancient manuscripts and texts than Erasmus and Luther ever dreamed of. Modern scholars are in a much better position than K&D were to know what 'ararat' meant in the ancient world.
Also as we have seen from Peter, the meaning of a passage may not become plain until we find out how God actually worked out the fulfilment. Even reading a translation, we have a better understanding of OT Messianic prophecies than the Hebrew speaking prophets who gave the original message. When we find out how God made the world through geology we are in a better position to question some of the traditional assumptions about God's description in Genesis. And as I said, scholars can't be expected to evaluate questions about traditional assumptions that hadn't been brought up yet.
Well the why is a lengthy subject for a more theological thread not here.
As for atheists and bible beleivers coming up with the same reading (not interpretation) of GEnesis is because it is simply what is written!! It takes faith to beleive but the evidence is clear for all to see. It is the TE beleivers that has sought to try to meld atheistic evolutionary theory with the bible.
You quoted: the natural man cannot perceive the things of God. You think this means the natural man cannot understand the natural world, but can understand the Word of God???
Teh secular evo's scorn the intrusion of the divine into pure naturalistic processes and the bible beleivers who scorn the intrusion of untrue thesis into the realm of Gods creative process. You guys created your own littel space by trying to synthesize to diametrically oppossed models of origins.
God created the heavens and the earth. There can be no antithesis between the evidence of creation and God's word. If you find a contradiction between the two you should check your interpretation.
Well send some of those "rich traditons" omto this web site and let us examine them!! I know of only pauper traditions violating rules of exegesis and grammar to come up with that interpretation!!
How about Calvin, the Geneva bible,
Wesley, Gill, Henry, Barnes, PNT and Clark?
That is becauser having studied greek formally for a year and informally for seversal years on my own I know that "ge"'s primary meaning is dirt, soil, arable land, and in some cases (the majority of the 188 times it appears in the NT) as the abode of men and animals ( not as planet but as a metaphor when kosmos is used this way) and also as planet once. However when it stands in contrast to kosmos in a sentence it means dry land or ground and kosmos unless context dorectly demands it refers to the planet!
And what does
ge mean when it is used
ouranos? Do you think heaven and earth is talking about dry land here, or the whole planet?
Verse 5 matches this:
9And God said, Let the waters under the heaven be gathered together unto one place, and let the dry land appear: and it was so.
10And God called the dry land Earth; and the gathering together of the waters called he Seas: and God saw that it was good.
No because verse 5 starts with the creation of the heavens and continues on to include the separation of the waters in Gen 1:9&10. Peter isn't making a distinction between the earth in Gen 1:1 and the dry land that came out of the waters. It is all part of the creation of the earth. In verse 7 he continues to talk of the heavens and the earth. He means the planet.
kosmos can only be translated as the planet-- only reinterpretation allows for implying i t means men--then you leave translation and enter into opinion. But again it is not what the Word of God says but what someones opinoin wants it to say!!
I can only assume the reason you keep ignoring Peter's use of 'the heavens and the earth' is that you desperately want Peter to support a global flood.
The kosmos that existed perished!! And the only recorded persihing we have is the global flood of Noah!!!
Again that word 'global' it's not in Genesis but I do agree Peter is referring to the deluging of human civilisation in Noah's flood.
Event he Hebrew word for flood is opnly used of the globasl deluge mawbbul.
The rest of the use is either nahar (streams rivers) or zoram (flood to be carried away)
Even the NT uses the word kataklusmos only for the flood for it was a devstating.
Exactly, it means a cataclysmic flood. What is it about the word mabbul that make you think it means global?
You only have circumstantial evidences that dont hold up when used int eh context they are talking about. You have to go against 4,000 years of beleivers history to hold to a local flood (like in that whole time there would be no one risingup in the church or in Israel to say hey wait a minute-- the language of the text clearly shows only a local flood ! Beleive that and we got a bridge to sell you !!!

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If that is what believers thought for 4000 years why is there no evidence for this interpretation throughout the rest of the bible?
Assyrian