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assyrian writes:
Also I should have remembered this sooner- all carnivorous animals can revert back to full herbivorous diets and not suffer ill effects. So even today we see the evidence of the original creation i nthe animal kingdom!
And that is not always true biblcally as Peter says that many times the prophets wrote and wondered what it meant and wne the time of it s fulfillment was to be.
Well can the raqia cause that was a seperation of waters and may have formed the boundary of the atmosphere and space- but that I cannot be sure of. And the only reason we call it outer space is cause that is the term we call it by-- the Hebrews called ti shamayim or sometimes shamayimn of shamayim to make sure people knew they werew talkingabout the aboder of the stars!
You only saythis because you force on Hebrew culture the mesopotamian, egyptian, babylonian and sumerian cosmologies of the universe without any warrant other than supposed expertsd on ANE histopry do and they alsdo have no evidence to do so either!
The simple fact is that we really do not for sure exactrly what the ancient elect of God beleived about teh cosmos. we have no writings, we only havve commentaries that only go as far back as the 3-4th centuries B.C.
I for one do not see the Hebrew race and the pre Hebrewe race of elect holding to the pagan cosmologies at all! I can see them acceopting them when they fell into their many backslideden stages as are written about and them accepting the false ogds and practices of the cultures around them that God said He hated so much! But to have them beleive from God the pagan concpets is something that is just not warranted from the scriptures at all!! They may have had the truth and incomplete information, but they would not have beern told or allowed to accept a lie by God concerning the little knowledge they had of cosmology that just runs contrrary to all of scripture!
BOY I WISH THEY WOULD FIX THE FIX OF THE FORUM! I HAVEW CABLE INTERNET AND 5MB SPEED AND T HIS SITE IS SLOWER THAN BEFORE FOR ME!!!!
Well here is the Peter passage:
8But, beloved, be not ignorant of this one thing, that one day is with the Lord as a thousand years, and a thousand years as one day.
9The Lord is not slack concerning his promise, as some men count slackness; but is longsuffering to us-ward, not willing that any should perish, but that all should come to repentance.
So a day is LIKE a thousand years and a thousand years is LIKE a day! Kind of a wash! And the subject that this is describing is God not being slack butr being patient so that as many as desire will come to eternal life. It is not making a dsoctring saying 1,000 human years equal one divine day. Cause if it is then you have have 1 human day equalling 1,000 divine years!! Which is of course nonsense. So to try to make this comparative stastement concerning Gods p atience the absolute for Godf reckoinuing time is hermeneutically wrong as well as exegetically wrong and even eisegetically wrong!
Plus you are still 649,994,000 years short for life to be on this earth and 11,999,994,000 years short at eh minimum for what modern secular science says is the age of the universe. God said 6 days and if His six days are 6,000 human years you still have nothing you can beleive in.
First off raqia is the act of thinning and stretching and it nearly always requires a solid object.
Second the raqia was called into existence to seperate the waters from the waters.
Thrids raqia is a vaulted dome so it would be a roof (if you will) with empty space below. This would be what we call the atmosphere! And the waters above the raqia were the antedeluvian waters.
But they wouldn't have as I posted references to so stating from Jews.
But you ignore other important comments which they conclude being the linguistic experts they are!
[
So reading all they say about the Noahic Flood they bring to bear all the evidence needed to show that teh flood was indeed global.
Nice try at twisitng but the sentence structure and the use of woreds like all make it impossible to be local. Unless of course you have the unwritten and unpassed on oral tradition of such miracles as
1. God keeping all the beasts and creeping things from escaping th eMeso valley
2. God keeping humanity of the Meso valley from escaping
3. God having the flood waters rise 22.5 feet above th ehighest mountains of the Meso Valley and not escaping over the sides but just rising up and staying i thin air!!!
4. You have the flood happening at least 4,000 before the bible says it did because you have cave drawings in Europe modern science says date back to 7-8K B.C.
or 5. You have people living outside the Meso valley who were righteous and thus spared the destruction (but why didn't God just have Noah go join those folks instead of having Him spend 120 years building a boat??? Your thesis has no basis in science or in Scripture.
And it only becoem difficult to translate as global (undere all the heavens, all life etc.etc.) when you allow men who were not there to say what happened instead of trusting th eWord of the God who was there!!
Not according to HIs word he doesn't. According to mans religious opinion yeah, but HIs ord--NEVER!!!!
Actually it goes back about a century before and if it was good enough for learned men to use for three centuries--it is good enough for me!! Unless they weren't so learned after all!!!
Well modern secular science and its opinions are not the solid meat of Gods Word by any stretch of the iimagination!!
gluadys writes:
In its differing contexts it means varied shades. IN Genesis it is a vaulted dome just like the atmosphere with the water above it would be called. God hammered out (that is what raqia is a verb) the expanse between the waters and called it shamayim!
I never said it was! I have said it was jsut some type of matrix (unknown to us) that held the flood waters up above the earth! I never said it extended into outer space-- I do not beleive that!! I would venture to say it didn't even go up to 50,000 feet but that is my own opinion and ot anything to hang a hat on!!
No No NO!!! Raqia is a verb not a noun!
division of the chaotic mass of waters through the formation of the firmament, which was placed as a wall of separation (מבדּיל) in the midst of the waters, and divided them into upper and lower waters. רקיע .s, from רקע to stretch, spread out, then beat or tread out, means expansum, the spreading out of the air, which surrounds the earth as an atmosphere
And the modern YEC movement is fairly young. It sprung up a s a response to TE ans OEC.
Not surprising as Europe was still inthe dark ages and littel to no commentary oft he bible was going on. But as time permits I will see if I can find commentary on the "dome part" of the raqia being brst open at teh flood.
But hear you are straining at gnats! He may have been using oral tradition to say that the dome part of the raqia was liquid foirst then solid. I can specualte but how correct it would be I don't know. I can only give reasonable sounding answers. But the fact is he states there is a firmament that seperated waters from waters.
Well your problem with YEC scientization is that they seek to explain the scriptures and pose plausible answers based onteh geologic and biblical evidence! You should then be howling at assyruians interporetaton of Gen1:29 and the command for vegetation to be food for all beasts!! talk about reading back into the scriptures!! But I At least see them seeking the answers from observed and recorded phenomena.
Te and evo beleivers seek to relegate the early miracles into fables, allegories and the like because they define what they see as true science.
Discovering facts and then looking at scripture and saying OK that is what God meant (i.e. the process of precipitation that involves evaporation condensation etc. it is all in the bible just in different terms). Taking ancient concpets and plugging in modern language is not wrong-- just making the leap from past to present! It is not reinterpreting but simply translating from one culture to another without adding.
It is a fulfilment of Gen1:29 that we see around us today, but it was just as easily observed by nomadic herdsmen. Sheep eat grass, wolves eat sheep. It's not rocket science. The concepts you force back however, are.
Also I should have remembered this sooner- all carnivorous animals can revert back to full herbivorous diets and not suffer ill effects. So even today we see the evidence of the original creation i nthe animal kingdom!
The meaning of a text is what the original author intends it to mean, not a meaning that is obscure to all scholars not conversant with 21st century scientific knowledge.
And that is not always true biblcally as Peter says that many times the prophets wrote and wondered what it meant and wne the time of it s fulfillment was to be.
The only reason WE call it space is because we have access to modern scientific models of the cosmos from which the concept of 'raqia' is missing.
Well can the raqia cause that was a seperation of waters and may have formed the boundary of the atmosphere and space- but that I cannot be sure of. And the only reason we call it outer space is cause that is the term we call it by-- the Hebrews called ti shamayim or sometimes shamayimn of shamayim to make sure people knew they werew talkingabout the aboder of the stars!
But imposing this meaning on scripture distorts its originally intended meaning.
You only saythis because you force on Hebrew culture the mesopotamian, egyptian, babylonian and sumerian cosmologies of the universe without any warrant other than supposed expertsd on ANE histopry do and they alsdo have no evidence to do so either!
The simple fact is that we really do not for sure exactrly what the ancient elect of God beleived about teh cosmos. we have no writings, we only havve commentaries that only go as far back as the 3-4th centuries B.C.
I for one do not see the Hebrew race and the pre Hebrewe race of elect holding to the pagan cosmologies at all! I can see them acceopting them when they fell into their many backslideden stages as are written about and them accepting the false ogds and practices of the cultures around them that God said He hated so much! But to have them beleive from God the pagan concpets is something that is just not warranted from the scriptures at all!! They may have had the truth and incomplete information, but they would not have beern told or allowed to accept a lie by God concerning the little knowledge they had of cosmology that just runs contrrary to all of scripture!
BOY I WISH THEY WOULD FIX THE FIX OF THE FORUM! I HAVEW CABLE INTERNET AND 5MB SPEED AND T HIS SITE IS SLOWER THAN BEFORE FOR ME!!!!
It is a comparison that tells God's view of time, what a day means to him. It tells us God's days are not always literal. Peter warns us not to overlook this one fact. Why do YECs struggle so hard to overlook it?
Well here is the Peter passage:
8But, beloved, be not ignorant of this one thing, that one day is with the Lord as a thousand years, and a thousand years as one day.
9The Lord is not slack concerning his promise, as some men count slackness; but is longsuffering to us-ward, not willing that any should perish, but that all should come to repentance.
So a day is LIKE a thousand years and a thousand years is LIKE a day! Kind of a wash! And the subject that this is describing is God not being slack butr being patient so that as many as desire will come to eternal life. It is not making a dsoctring saying 1,000 human years equal one divine day. Cause if it is then you have have 1 human day equalling 1,000 divine years!! Which is of course nonsense. So to try to make this comparative stastement concerning Gods p atience the absolute for Godf reckoinuing time is hermeneutically wrong as well as exegetically wrong and even eisegetically wrong!
Plus you are still 649,994,000 years short for life to be on this earth and 11,999,994,000 years short at eh minimum for what modern secular science says is the age of the universe. God said 6 days and if His six days are 6,000 human years you still have nothing you can beleive in.
I though you used the concept of a thin raqia to describe space not just the atmosphere? Nor do I think any of the ancient Hebrews would have taken a thin beaten out raqia as a description of a spherical atmosphere surrounding the earth. Raqia described something beaten flat or at most bowl shaped. You cannot take a hammer and beat a lump of gold into a hollow sphere.
First off raqia is the act of thinning and stretching and it nearly always requires a solid object.
Second the raqia was called into existence to seperate the waters from the waters.
Thrids raqia is a vaulted dome so it would be a roof (if you will) with empty space below. This would be what we call the atmosphere! And the waters above the raqia were the antedeluvian waters.
But they would have understood raqia as the (almost) flat expanse of air between the earth and the clouds, the waters above the earth.
But they wouldn't have as I posted references to so stating from Jews.
It is interesting that they give an example of 'under the whole heaven' that only covered the promised land, Deut 2:25. However their whole argument about the height of the flood, 15 cubits above the highest mountain, is not based on linguistics, but on the mistaken notion that the ark came to rest on top of mount Ararat. If it came to rest on top of Ararat, it must have floated there and the draft of the ark was about 15 cubits. But there is no evidence the mountain we call Ararat had that name when the bible was written. The word refers to region instead of a mountain, possibly the ancient kingdom the Babylonians called Urartu. The ark came to rest, not on top of an individual hill there, but in the hills, the hill country of Urartu.
But you ignore other important comments which they conclude being the linguistic experts they are!
7:24). But if the water covered "all the high hills under the whole heaven," this clearly indicates the universality of the flood.
[
So reading all they say about the Noahic Flood they bring to bear all the evidence needed to show that teh flood was indeed global.
Where does the bible say global? Simply translating it can be difficult when erets can either mean 'the earth' or 'a land'. Simply would probably take the way erets was used in the chapters that went before. In which case, it just means Noah's land was flooded.
Nice try at twisitng but the sentence structure and the use of woreds like all make it impossible to be local. Unless of course you have the unwritten and unpassed on oral tradition of such miracles as
1. God keeping all the beasts and creeping things from escaping th eMeso valley
2. God keeping humanity of the Meso valley from escaping
3. God having the flood waters rise 22.5 feet above th ehighest mountains of the Meso Valley and not escaping over the sides but just rising up and staying i thin air!!!
4. You have the flood happening at least 4,000 before the bible says it did because you have cave drawings in Europe modern science says date back to 7-8K B.C.
or 5. You have people living outside the Meso valley who were righteous and thus spared the destruction (but why didn't God just have Noah go join those folks instead of having Him spend 120 years building a boat??? Your thesis has no basis in science or in Scripture.
And it only becoem difficult to translate as global (undere all the heavens, all life etc.etc.) when you allow men who were not there to say what happened instead of trusting th eWord of the God who was there!!
When God looks down on his children, he sometimes does have a bad heir day...
Not according to HIs word he doesn't. According to mans religious opinion yeah, but HIs ord--NEVER!!!!
As I pointed out, you are the one taking a meaning for 'science' that has only been around since the 18th century and forcing it onto the 16th century English of the AV. You are trying to bump start a stalled ox.
Actually it goes back about a century before and if it was good enough for learned men to use for three centuries--it is good enough for me!! Unless they weren't so learned after all!!!
Heb 5:11 About this we have much to say, and it is hard to explain, since you have become dull of hearing. 12 For though by this time you ought to be teachers, you need someone to teach you again the basic principles of the oracles of God. You need milk not solid food, 13 for everyone who lives on milk is unskilled in the word of righteousness, since he is a child. :14 But solid food is for the mature...
Well modern secular science and its opinions are not the solid meat of Gods Word by any stretch of the iimagination!!
gluadys writes:
Commentaries tell us how the people who wrote them understood the meaning of the scriptural text. And that is what is at issue here. What did 'raqiya' mean to the people who read it say 2500 years ago? People for whom Hebrew was their native tongue and who shared the culture of the original writer.
In its differing contexts it means varied shades. IN Genesis it is a vaulted dome just like the atmosphere with the water above it would be called. God hammered out (that is what raqia is a verb) the expanse between the waters and called it shamayim!
Exactly. And a dome is a solid structure, of limited dimensions, not a vaccuum extending millions of light years beyond the surface of the earth.
I never said it was! I have said it was jsut some type of matrix (unknown to us) that held the flood waters up above the earth! I never said it extended into outer space-- I do not beleive that!! I would venture to say it didn't even go up to 50,000 feet but that is my own opinion and ot anything to hang a hat on!!
We do see it. The raqia is the covering dome. Like any dome, even an overturned bowl, it encloses an air-filled space. But the space inside the dome is not the raqia; the dome, the covering over the space, is the raqia. And in ANE cosmology, what was outside the dome was not space either, it was the primeval waters.
No No NO!!! Raqia is a verb not a noun!
division of the chaotic mass of waters through the formation of the firmament, which was placed as a wall of separation (מבדּיל) in the midst of the waters, and divided them into upper and lower waters. רקיע .s, from רקע to stretch, spread out, then beat or tread out, means expansum, the spreading out of the air, which surrounds the earth as an atmosphere
I know. I didn't hear about YECism until 1982, but I learned later that it got its start in 1950. In the '50s all the creationists I knew were OECs.
And the modern YEC movement is fairly young. It sprung up a s a response to TE ans OEC.
I am not going to ask about 15th century commentators since they believed the firmament was still a present reality in their own time. The idea that it disappeared after the flood would be nonsense to them.
Not surprising as Europe was still inthe dark ages and littel to no commentary oft he bible was going on. But as time permits I will see if I can find commentary on the "dome part" of the raqia being brst open at teh flood.
If it is "simply what is the text", why was that not obvious to commentators who preceded those of AiG, ICR and CRS? If it is "simply what is the text" why does Rav find the text to say the firmament was liquid on the first day and turned solid on the second day?
But hear you are straining at gnats! He may have been using oral tradition to say that the dome part of the raqia was liquid foirst then solid. I can specualte but how correct it would be I don't know. I can only give reasonable sounding answers. But the fact is he states there is a firmament that seperated waters from waters.
This is the problem I have with YEC scientization of scripture. If it really is a plain reading of the text, then it should not require a knowledge of modern science to see it in the text. It should be a common theme of ancient and medieval and pre-20th century commentators and biblical scholars as well as those of this generation.
Well your problem with YEC scientization is that they seek to explain the scriptures and pose plausible answers based onteh geologic and biblical evidence! You should then be howling at assyruians interporetaton of Gen1:29 and the command for vegetation to be food for all beasts!! talk about reading back into the scriptures!! But I At least see them seeking the answers from observed and recorded phenomena.
Te and evo beleivers seek to relegate the early miracles into fables, allegories and the like because they define what they see as true science.
If it shows up in commentary only after scientists discover it in nature, (whether pro or anti-science), it is not "simply what the text is" for it was not observable in the text without the prior work of scientists. It is, therefore, an interpretation filtered through scientific knowledge not available to the original writer and his/her audience.
Discovering facts and then looking at scripture and saying OK that is what God meant (i.e. the process of precipitation that involves evaporation condensation etc. it is all in the bible just in different terms). Taking ancient concpets and plugging in modern language is not wrong-- just making the leap from past to present! It is not reinterpreting but simply translating from one culture to another without adding.
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