Look, we can skirt the issue all day, but the wording in that hymn (any many prayers that are similar to it) attribute Godly powers to Mary.
.
And we can avoid the issue all day - but the bottom line is that it is foolish putting words in the mouths of others when ignoring the context of scripture, the context of what others have said and skipping past the meaning of words. That is ignorance - in the same way it'd be ignorant for one to claim the apostles were "worthy of worship" because they were given the authority to forgive sins in John 20 (even though it was said to Christ "Who can forgive sins but God alone?!" when working with the man lowered through the roof).
The Early Church already understand the basic difference between Godly Powers that were God's Alone not being shared (i.e Before Beginning and Without End, Omipotent/All-Powerful, etc.) and His sharing aspects of Who He is with others while others exercising that were looking to Him (i.e. saints having supernatural foreknowledge of events because of tapping into God's vast knowledge - saints being able to teleport/go multiple places because of God, saints who travel in time, etc.). And it has already been noted where multiple things people ASSUME are God's alone were shared with His people on a myriad of occassions. When in a glorified state and
the process of deification is complete, abilities not available to man before are later - people are outside of time, people do not die, people are to connect with God/see the knowledge he has....which helps them as they actively pray for others below on the earth, with us asking them to pray for us in the same way we ask those HERE who are living "Please Pray for Me" since we know they are instruments used of God to help in the process ( more shared on that elsewhere in the thread entitled [URL="http://www.christianforums.com/t7802214-4/#post64968771"]What sin leads unto death? Can we pray for others to be forgiven? ). Mary went through this process, as do all the saints..
[/URL]
Period.
From others here to people in the early Church, People have already noted the context of the hymn, as well as what the Early Church fathers and councils said about Mary - in consistency with the hymn. If one doesn't care to be in agreement with the Early Church/Church councils who already used language such as the hymn did and yet knew the difference in context, then that's something one deals with on their own. But there's no reason for people to presume to tell others what their own langauge means and what they do when they don't even belong to the group - this is no different than one saying slang to friends like "That party was SO on fire!!! (with "fire" being an expression/euphemism for noting it was cool) ...with them all agreeing.....and then having someone else OUTSIDE the group come along accusing them of causing them/others to panic and call the fire station because they didn't know the ramifications of what fire means. If you were not part of the culture using the term, you have little basis talking on what it meant.
Orthodox know what it means to venerate Mary - and they know what their own language means when it comes to the Hymns shared and what the Church Fathers often did with similar language, singing hymns that Protestants centuries later accused of promoting "worship of men" even though the Church Fathers already noted where men were not to be worshipped and noted in their use of language where terms did not mean worship (including those people take issue with in THIS thread).
The early Church had no issue with the terms used as with the hymn in the Original post since they understood how it did not mean worship - and this is something that they were doing so with much wisdom - as occurred in the time frame Nestorius lived in, when there were cults of Mary (w
hich were supported by Plucheria in the Imperial Court)that were fought against to influence like it was when Nestorius was seeking to combat them since devotion to the Virgin Mary was a big, driving force and all around the Roman Empire, people believed in worshiping the Virgin Mary as Mother of God. The early Church was aware of how many people believed that Mary sounded like the mother of one of the great pagan god and made her a great pagan goddess, at the time when the pagan temples were still standing and there was a worrisome idea of syncretism that tainted the term “Mother of God” for many (more in
The Image of the Virgin Mary in the Akathistos Hymn - Leena Mari Peltomaa - Google Books and
The Cult of the Virgin in the Fourth Century: A Fresh Look at Some Old and New Sources | Stephen Shoemaker - Academia.edu )
Despite all of that, they did not take issue with the use of hymns that had language like the original post noted - and that's because they had a different understanding of the language than we have today. Bottom line, rather than make excuses, folks need to be in line with the Early Church.
That said, there are a million excuses about why what's in the hearts of those singing it is different or that they don't mean what they say
Seeing that no one but God alone knows the hearts of others, it doesn't matter what others think on the issue - and thus, when others already note they do not worship anyone but God, there are zero excuses as to why others cannot be sensible in leaving the issue alone instead of claiming "Well, you're making others think you're doing this" - if people say "We don't worship when we say this", that's the end of it and all further accusations need to be dropped. The bottom line is people need to get over it and move on instead of insisting others use langauge the way they think is right.
, etc. etc. but the criticism over approaching Mary and thinking of Mary in the terms stated in those lyrics is reasonable. This is one of those things that separates the reformed churches from the unreformed churches, just like Scripture Alone vs. Tradition or Faith vs. Works,
Seeing that every criticism made on the issue of the lyrics already divorces itself directly from the Church of Antiquity. This is a huge battle that Reformed Churches have long had to deal with when it comes to seeing divorcing the practices of what the Early Church and Councils said on issues from the language used by others. When one ignores the practices done to give illustration to the language/symbolism used by people, you end up with making the language mean anything you want it to mean - and thus, begin accusing instead of seeing what others actually said.
The reasonable claims ended at the point that the Church was dismissed - it is one of the consistent reasons why the Protestant Church and culture will always seek to re-invent the wheel without actually seeing what it was made like to begin with. The same goes with the other gigs of "
Scripture Alone vs. Tradition" (as
discussed before) and many other things.
and neither side is going to be changing its views because of a post on CF
No one said or assumed that either side cares to change because of a post - that was never in view for anyone when they posted something in agreement with others that made a point. If someone chooses to post something and others agree with it, that's all there is to it - and seeing where others with a differing view than a post actually did change views as has occurred before, it's not even accurate claiming things don't change because of what someone posts.
Ultimately, if you don't agree with something, that's the end of it - but others posting in agreement with it or noting where they can understand has little to do with whether you approve of it. People will discuss what they discuss.