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How would this sinner be saved, without works.

Can a prideful sinner be saved, if they stay prideful?

  • Yes

  • No


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How does your belief in justifying grievous sin work as a real world scenario? Does that mean we can get away with doing one murder or really bad evil like David? For if he was saved while he murdered then that means you are saying people can murder and be saved while doing so. How can God reward evil actions like that? Is not God righteous? Does not God’s Word say to the faithful servant the following words?

“His lord said unto him, Well done, thou good and faithful servant: thou hast been faithful over a few things, I will make thee ruler over many things: enter thou into the joy of thy lord.”‭‭ (Matthew 25:21).

If what you teach is true then this verse should say,

“The lord said unto him, Well done, thou has not been faithful but you trusted in my blood for salvation, enter thou into the joy of thy own self interests.”

But the Bible does not say that.
 
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food4thought

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I disagree about that... they should be looked upon as discussing current (verse 8) and past (verse 10) experience.

My Comment on 1 John 1:8, and 1 John 1:10:

Well, what is helpful in understanding 1 John 1:8 is looking at its immediate context.

Always.

1 John 1:10 says if we say we have not sinned.

Yes it does.

1 John 1:10 moves verse 8 (which is present tense) into a past declaration (with verse 10).

No it doesn't... verse 10 is NOT modifying verse 8, it is complimenting it.

Verse 10 is saying there are people who said they have not sinned (past tense). This is clearly a gnostic belief.

Excellent insight. Gnosticism in it's beginning form was a big opponent to the gospel when John was writing.

Most believers today hold to the idea that they have sinned at some point in their life (Regardless of whether they are an OSAS believer or a Conditional Salvationist).

Agreed. BTW, I am unsure of OSAS, and lean towards the possibility of a believer leaving their salvation (Hebrews 6:4-8).


Does it say in 1 John 2:3-4 that the person who breaks a commandment is damned? NO!!! In the context of:

1 John 3:4-6 ESV Everyone who makes a practice of sinning also practices lawlessness; sin is lawlessness. (5) You know that he appeared in order to take away sins, and in him there is no sin. (6) No one who abides in him keeps on sinning; no one who keeps on sinning has either seen him or known him.

What John is saying in the context of the whole book is that a person who practices unrepentant habitual sin does not know God. UNREPENTANT... HABITUAL.. SIN. Sinning is something we all do (remember what the two greatest commandments teach), and does not cost us our salvation every time we sin!!! If we confess our sins, He is faithful and just to forgive us our sins and cleanse us from all unrighteousness.



God's wrath has been poured out on Christ so it would not have to be poured out on those who trust in Him. Of course, those who trust in Him will demonstrate that truth through living out their faith by doing righteousness (imperfectly, but striving towards the goal).


I agree with them on that point. All I would add is that belief is not enough... the demons believe, and tremble. There must be good works that follow salvation in a person who has true, saving faith.

In short, 1 John 1:8 is a denial of the existence of sin on some level. “If we say we have no sin (in the sense that it does not exist) we deceive ourselves and the truth is not in us.” (1 John 1:8).

No, but it's straightforward meaning is just what it says... if we have no sin.

Christian Scientists think sin is an illusion and does not exist at all. So this verse would apply to them.

Ok.


That is not what I was taught at all (I once believed in OSAS). This is a straw man. OSAS believe that their sin is real, but their sin has been paid for by the blood of Christ. If our sins are not forgiven us for Christ's sake, then Christ died in vain, we are still in our sins, and everyone from Adam on is lost.


On the contrary, according to Robertson's Word Pictures (a commentary that gives an in depth look at the Greek words of the NT):

If we confess (ean homologōmen). Third-class condition again with ean and present active subjunctive of homologeō, “if we keep on confessing.” Confession of sin to God and to one another (Jas_5:16) is urged throughout the N.T. from John the Baptist (Mar_1:5) on.

If we "keep on confessing" our sins, we are forgiven and cleansed from all unrighteousness.

In fact, we know that is not the case because 1 John 1:7 says if we walk in the light as He is in the light, the blood of Jesus Christ cleanses us from all sin.

The Bible Knowledge Commentary on 1 John 1:7:

"It is significant that John talked of walking in the light, rather than according to the light. To walk according to the light would require sinless perfection and would make fellowship with God impossible for sinful humans. To walk in it, however, suggests instead openness and responsiveness to the light. John did not think of Christians as sinless, even though they are walking in the light, as is made clear in the last part of this verse. For John added that the blood of Jesus, His Son, purifies us from every sin."

Walking in the light is loving your brother (See 1 John 2:9-10).

The two are not equivalent. Loving your brother is ONE THING that a person who is walking in the light does, because he/she recognizes their own sinfulness revealed by the light, and therefore humbly forgives others their sins.


I don't know how you got there from those passages. I agree that loving your neighbor sums up the Law with regard to our relationship to others, but a good portion of the moral Law is directed at our relationship to God, as well (Love God, no other gods, etc.). Keeping the commandments is not the equivalent of walking in the light, it is just something that those who walk in the light tend to do.

It means we have to walk uprightly and obey God's commandments in order for the blood of Jesus to cleanse us from all sin.

No. According to the NT, we must have faith in Jesus Christ, in His substitutionary death, burial, and resurrection (1 Corinthians 15:1-4), and that we must confess Jesus as Lord and call on His name (Romans 10:5-13). This results in salvation/justification, and the good works naturally follow from a regenerate heart.


I have no problem with most of that, but if we confess our sins He is faithful and just to forgive us our sins, and cleanse us from all unrighteousness. If we abide in sin (keep on sinning/habitual sin), that is evidence that we may not be saved, but only God knows when that person might be able to overcome the sin. If we struggle against our sin, if we hunger for holiness, and strive for it, that is evidence that we are saved. Note that Jesus said: "Blessed are they who hunger and thirst for righteousness, for they shall be filled" (Matthew 5:6)… He did not say blessed are they who are righteous. No one is sinless at any given moment. We all stumble in many ways (you never did address that quote from James). Only continuing faith in the Lord Jesus Christ justifies us, and that faith leads us to strive for holiness, or it is no faith at all.
 
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food4thought

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And which part of what I said are all these Scriptures directed against? I said an awful lot, and it took me time to respond carefully to what you said... please respond in kind
 
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food4thought

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How does your belief in justifying grievous sin work as a real world scenario?

I do not justify ANY sin. I just say that ANY sinner can be justified by faith in Jesus Christ, which leads us to repentance from our sins, whatever they may be.

Does that mean we can get away with doing one murder or really bad evil like David? For if he was saved while he murdered then that means you are saying people can murder and be saved while doing so.

Yes, even saved people are still capable of doing evil. If it is habitual sin, that is a different story.

How can God reward evil actions like that?

God is not rewarding people for their evil, He is rewarding them for their faith which leads to repentance and holiness. How is it different for some one to murder after they are saved verses someone who murders before they are saved? Both committed the same evil deed they knew was wrong. God poured His wrath for all sin on Christ.

Is not God righteous?

Perfectly so. And holy. And just. And merciful. And loving. And compassionate. This is why the gospel is so perfect, it balances all of God's attributes perfectly. Remember Romans 3:21-26.


So, according to you, we must walk without sin in order to be saved? Even one grievous sin makes us unsaved? What about Peter (Galatians 2:11-14)? Was he lost? The Scripture says he stood condemned for his hypocrisy.

But the Bible does not say that.

No, it doesn't. But it also doesn't say what you are saying...
 
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Rescued One

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Serious sins are committed by people who DON'T LOVE CHRIST; they live after the flesh; they walk in darkness. They don't all commit the same sins; there are degrees of punishment.

FACT #1:
John 14
23 Jesus answered and said unto him, If a man love me, he will keep my words: and my Father will love him, and we will come unto him, and make our abode with him.

FACT #2:
24 He that loveth me not keepeth not my sayings:
and the word which ye hear is not mine, but the Father's which sent me.
 
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Rescued One

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...“The lord said unto him, Well done, thou has not been faithful but you trusted in my blood for salvation, enter thou into the joy of thy own self interests.”

But the Bible does not say that.

I agree 100%.
 
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I disagree about that... they should be looked upon as discussing current (verse 8) and past (verse 10) experience.

Always.

Yes it does.

No it doesn't... verse 10 is NOT modifying verse 8, it is complimenting it.

Well, I am not a grammar teacher or expert. Sometimes words can be imprecise to convey our thoughts. I apologize if my words were not as clear for you. What my words were not suggesting exactly what you are saying regards to 1 John 1:8 and 1 John 1:10 (with the whole modifier thingy in it being an adverb; That is not what I was saying). I believe the two verses are related when I say "1 John 1:10 moves 1 John 1:8 into a past declaration." Maybe I should not have said it like that because it is not grammatically correct (Note: I updated my post to be a little clearer now on this point). But for your information: I am not saying 1 John 1:10 is an adverb of 1 John 1:8.

1 John 1:8 says, "if we say we have no sin." 1 John 1:10 says, if we say we have not sinned. One is talking about present sin and the other is talking about past sin. Both are a denial of sin (However which way you want to slice it). One is speaking present tense. The other past tense. They are related or connected or in the same topic of discussion.

The gnostics did not believe sin existed whatsoever. So they would say that sin did not exist for them in the present or the past. Christian Scientists believe sin is an illusion and is not real. OSAS Proponents or Non-OSAS sin and still be saved type believers hold to the view that Jesus paid for their present and future sin. They believe confession of sin does not actually forgive sin. Yet.... Yet.... yet...... yet.... that is what 1 John 1:9 SAYS. It is says... if we confess our sin, He is faithful and just to forgive us our sins and to cleanse us from all unrighteousness. 1 John 1:8 is a warning to the Christian Scientist or anyone who says they can commit grievous sin (that leads to spiritual death) and they can still be saved while doing so. Hebrews 10:26 says if we willfully sin after we received the knowledge of the truth, there remains no more sacrifice for sin. See, my friend.... there is a HUGE difference between a believer stumbling with them knowing that their grievous sin separates them from GOD unless they repent vs. say someone who just pays lip service in saying they are sorry over a sin that is already forgiven.

If all sins are paid for in the future, then I am not going to be so sorrowful over sin because it is paid for and it makes light of the transgression of sin. Jesus does not pay for future sin. That would make a person think sin is not all that big of deal and we can just sin to high heaven and not worry about it. For the moment a person thinks they are saved while commiting one sin, they will then start to commit more sins. It does not matter if you say they must repent later and forsake it. Just saying that a person is saved while they commit a grievous sin is enough to have a person to commit sin and then pay lip service as if all that is required. They can plan to sin and then just confess it. That is not a Godly sorrow that Paul talks about in 2 Corinthians 7:10. This is with the understanding that you believe King David was saved in his sins of adultery and murder. I say this because for me: There is nothing more wrong to say one is saved while committing any sin. It is justifying a little bit of evil. God cannot agree with a believer in getting away with doing sin even for a little while. It does not work like that. Well, that is if you believe David was saved while he committed his sins of adultery and murder. There would be no need for Him to repent or confess his sins if he was forgiven already.

"But whoso committeth adultery with a woman lacketh understanding: he that doeth it destroyeth his own soul." (Proverbs 6:32).
 
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savedthroughgrace

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Jason,

Let me start by saying that I believe that we as believers can sin and break fellowship with God. I believe as 1 John 1:9 says, we should confess our sins to receive forgiveness and be cleansed from unrighteousness. I believe that if a believer commits a sin and confesses and repents, then they are saved. I believe that by God's grace, through our faith we are saved and that true saving faith produces works. I agree to your point that we shouldn't sin and assume that we can sin now and ask for forgiveness later. That would be trying to live of the world, while also living for Christ. The bible is clear that we cannot do that. I have to believe, however, that Christian CAN and will commits heinous sins. I have done so. I "fought" different forms of sexual sin for a long time. I say "fought" because I never really realized how severe my sin was and I never turned it over to Christ. I just said, this is wrong and I shouldn't do it, I would stop for a while and it would happen. In my case it wasn't until I committed adultery that I realized how far I had been straying. I believe the Holy Spirit convicted me and through prayer and bible reading I learned how I needed to get my life in Christ back. Through confession to God, my wife, close friends, and repentance of all sexual sin. I would love to hear if you agree or disagree with my assessment of my own situation. Are you saying that I am beyond saving? Is anyone beyond saving? If a believer entertains sin for a season are they able to truly repent? I would also like to question you on one point. It seems you reference "grievous" and "serious" sin in regards to losing fellowship. What qualifies as such? Is our salvation secure while in non-serious sin?
 
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If you were to read my explanation on 1 John 1:8, I did say the OSAS proponent believe their sin is real. I was saying essentially they also believe their future sin is paid for and so they don’t need to worry about their sin condemning at any judgment. But this is not what we see take place in Matthew 7:23. Jesus tells certain believers to depart from Him because they worked iniquity (sin).
 
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As for 1 John 3:9:

It is not talking about habitual sin. Various modern translations suggest this and it is false. 1 John 3:6 holds the key to understanding here.

“Whosoever abideth in him sinneth not: whosoever sinneth hath not seen him, neither known him.” (1 John 3:6).

Whosever abides in Him (Jesus) sins not. This means that whenever we are in the born again state, with the “seed” (which is Christ) abiding in us, we cannot sin (while abiding in Him) because when we put on Christ, we crucify the affections and lust (See Romans 13:14). A person can turn from Christ and willfully sin of their own accord, but they would not be acting out of any kind of born again state or with them abiding in Christ. Christ cannot sin. He is God. So it is the person’s choice in siding with the devil to sin. For 1 John 3:8 says that he that commits sin is of the devil. Remember. Jesus called Peter as Satan when he had the sinful thought of trying to prevent Jesus in going to the cross.

"But when the righteous turneth away from his righteousness, and committeth iniquity, and doeth according to all the abominations that the wicked man doeth, shall he live? All his righteousness that he hath done shall not be mentioned: in his trespass that he hath trespassed, and in his sin that he hath sinned, in them shall he die." (Ezekiel 18:24).
 
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I need to first know what you believe so I can know how to answer you properly. I will give you my acid test question. Was King David saved while he was committing his sins of adultery and murder?
 
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savedthroughgrace

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I need to first know what you believe so I can know how to answer you properly. I will give you my acid test question. Was King David saved while he was committing his sins of adultery and murder?

I do not know if he was saved. I know God was angry and would have killed him if he did not repent. There are a lot of things I do not claim to know. I know that in Psalms David writes for God to restore the joy of his salvation and renew in him a right spirit. I am not sure if what he was asking for was his salvation back or the joy/assurance of his salvation.
 
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salt-n-light

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He's required to have faith in order to be saved, the repentance is the result of salvation.
Humility is not synonymous to repentance, but the fruits of repentance is humility. So it first requires a heart open to change, that doesn't require work.
 
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I have provided a link to an article to help you understand where I am coming from. While I do not agree with everything this Christian author says and does, I do agree with them on this article in regards to King David.

King David and Bathsheba | King David's Adultery

I am not allowed to copy and paste the article here in any capacity; So that is why I provided just the link instead.
 
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savedthroughgrace

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I pretty well agree with this article, hence my concern for my own salvation. I believe salvation can be lost. The circumstances in which you can lose salvation and the regaining of such is what concerns me.

To my questions: Is there a sin that cannot be repented of and thus salvation is a total loss?
What do you mean by grievous sin? Murder and adultery? Are there more?
Is our salvation secure when one commits "non grievous" sin? What are these sins and what makes them different?

Thank you for your time
 
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nChrist

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This is a question for those who vainly throw "saved by grace, not works" verse at every opportunity.

(Romans 4:5-6 [KJV]) [5] But to him that worketh not, but believeth on him that justifieth the ungodly, his faith is counted for righteousness. [6] Even as David also describeth the blessedness of the man, unto whom God imputeth righteousness without works,
 
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bangmegafan

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Ok, then assume this person has some super pride. How will they repent genuinely if they're full of pride.


If the person has super pride before God, how can he be saved. There is no question saving as he is so pride that he can't repent his sins
 
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Neogaia777

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If the person has super pride before God, how can he be saved. There is no question saving as he is so pride that he can't repent his sins
Do not harden your hearts....

God Bless!
 
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Here are some unforgivable sins:

1. Apostasy: Denying Jesus as one's Savior after one has had the Holy Spirit, etc.
2. Speaking bad words (blasphemy) against the Holy Ghost.
3. Committing suicide and staying dead.

A sin whereby a person's name was never written in the book of life since the foundation of the world (Revelation 13:8, and Revelation 17:8):

1. Worshiping the beast.

You said:
What do you mean by grievous sin? Murder and adultery?

Yes (Matthew 5:28-30) (Matthew 6:15) (Galatians 5:19-21) (Revelation 21:8).

You said:
Are there more?

Not spreading the gospel (See Luke 9:62), and not helping the poor in this life (Matthew 25:31-46).

Is our salvation secure when one commits "non grievous" sin? What are these sins and what makes them different?

Well, a Christian will not seek to go against even the commands that if disobeyed, would be considered as non-grievous sins.

1 John 5:16-17 says there is a sin not unto death. In context within 1 John 5, I believe this is confessed sin (Whereby believers are praying for a believer who trying to overcome a particular sin - and give him the victory in overcoming it). This person who is struggling with this sin is confessing it and seeking out help.

There are other "sins not unto death" mentioned in the Bible. Baptism is a command that if disobeyed in this life is not a sin that leads unto death (See 1 Peter 3:21 and compare the words "filth of the flesh" with the words "filthiness of the flesh" in 2 Corinthians 7:1). There are other commands in the New Testament that are mentioned with no warning that it will cause a loss of salvation if it is disobeyed. Jesus said we are to rejoice when others falsely accuse us, etc. (See Matthew 5:11-12); But yet, nowhere Scripture does it state that if we refuse to do this command from the Lord, we will perish. Basically any command in the Bible that does not appear to be a major violation of loving God, and loving your neighbor with it having no warnings of hellfire or no mention of a loss of eternal life is suggestive that it is a "non-grievous sin."

You said:
Thank you for your time

You are most welcome.
May God's goodness be upon you this fine day.
 
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