I have no "contention" to answer these question till we establish an accord to the definitions of the words you are misusing.
Then I would say this does not follow the biblical definition of the words in question. I would further point out you have framed a biblically based questions using biblically based words and then you have interjected a modern term using popular understanding of this word against a 2000+ year old precept.
This is not a valid question. not until you concede you misusage of this word. which have all but done when you redefined "free will" a moment ago.
Again, you redefining "freewill" is indeed what makes your argument a strawman fallacy.

you have foolishly interjected a popular term and replaced a biblical one in order to create a perceived paradox. One that I have a very good answer to, if you would simply concede to your misdeeds.
Again because you redefined "freewill" and refuse to acknowledge the biblical definition of the word, you have indeed
Created a component of an argument that is an informal fallacy based on misrepresentation of an opponent's position. Which is known as a Strawman. Your efforts fit this definition perfectly. That makes your whole argument a Straw Man.
Here I will break it down for you:
Exactly! here you are taking a biblical component.
And coupling it with a misrepresentation of an opponent's position, by using a non biblical definition.
Which make your statement/question a straw man fallacy!
The rest of this can be sectioned off and dismissed as incoherent ramblings, if I so choose.
Well I have taken the time to point out and very specifically define your efforts, so now you and everyone else reading can truly see the "equation" before you.
Quid pro quo, Clarice, Quid pro quo. You want your questions answered I want my admission of your misdeeds, as I have outlined.